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Fine-needle aspiration of basaloid scalp lesion: Potential diagnostic pitfall
Gradually, enlarging 4 × 4 cm, well-circumscribed, mobile scalp nodule over the left parietal area in a 38-year-old man, noted after hitting a towel rack 7 months ago. Papanicolaou stained fine-needle aspiration smears stained showed groups of basaloid cells and eosinophilic shadows (ghost cells) with focal foreign body giant cells [
(a) The aspirate showed scattered groups of basaloi d cells with cohesive clumps of keratin debris. (b) ×60 the basaloid cells had scant cytoplasm with indistinct cell borders and hyperchromatic nuclei. (c) ×20 Tight clumps of keratinized debris with red arrow indicatingthe area undergoing zooming Tight clumps of keratinized debris with some identifiable ghost cells (yellow arrows in d). (d) 100×: ghost cells identified by yellow arrows. The tightly cohesive groups of anucleate keratinized cells did not spread well as compared to other squamous epithelial lesions and so the details of individual cells as ghost cells in cytology smears were difficult to evaluate and photograph (Pap stained direct smear. a: ×10; b: ×60; c: ×20; d: ×100 Oil with light increased).
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pilomatricoma Melanoma Merkle cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Proliferating trichilemmal tumor
Answer: a
Option a: Pilomatricoma showed cellular aspirates comprised of micro-fragments containing groups of basaloid cells without peripheral palisading. The basaloid cells showed high nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio, evenly dispersed chromatin with a few cells showing prominent nucleoli. Clumps of refractile keratin and multinucleated giant cells were also seen in the background. These tumors can have mitosis and, hence, could be misinterpreted as carcinomas. Even thought, it may be difficult to evaluate in fine-needle aspiration (FNA) aspirate, ghost cells (a.k.a. eosinophilic shadow cells), which have no nuclear staining, are clues to correct diagnosis.
Option b: Melanoma may present as asymmetrical and gradually enlarging lesion with irregular borders. However, this lesion is symmetrical with well-defined borders and uniform tan color. Desmoplastic melanoma is usually present on the head-and-neck region and can appear as erythematous, pink or pale nodules or plaque.[
Option c: Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) often appears as asymptomatic red, pink, or blue papules or nodules and lacks distinctive clinical features. Histopathologically, it is marked by round nuclei with finely granular chromatin, inconspicuous nucleoli, scant cytoplasm, and nuclear crush artifacts, along with multiple mitotic figures and apoptotic bodies resembling small cell carcinoma.[
Option d: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually presents as a red scaly plaque. SCC can be classified with various degrees of differentiation from well to poorly differentiated. SCC can be classified into many subtypes and histopathologic features include atypical squamous cells, keratin pearls, and sometimes hyperkeratosis.[
Option e: Proliferating trichilemmal tumor is a tumor originating from the outer root sheath of a hair follicle.[
The lesion showed [
(a-d) Clumps of keratinized debris with some identifiable ghost cells (yellow arrows). The tightly cohesive groups of keratinized cells did not spread well as compared to other squamous epithelial lesions, making the details of individual cells as ghost cells in cytology smears difficult to appreciate and photograph. (Pap stained direct smear. a: ×10; b: ×60; c: ×100 Oil, Focus 1 to highlight the overall structure; d: ×100 Oil, Focus 2 to provide enhanced detail with increased light.
The excisional biopsy showed an intradermal, fairly well-circumscribed lesion measuring 4 × 4 × 4 cm. Microscopic images are shown in
Hematoxylin and Eosin (HE) stained sections of resection (a: ×4; b-d: ×20 ). (a) Islands of basaloid cells at periphery with center showing shadow cells. (b) Basaloid cells with shadow cells. (c and d) Giant cells surrounding an area with keratinized ghost cells.
2. How does the expression of beta-catenin and p63 in pilomatricoma differ in intensity and distribution from other hair matrix tumors?
Pilomatricoma exhibits nuclear beta-catenin and nuclear p63 Pilomatricoma exhibits membranous beta-catenin and cytoplasmic p63 Pilomatricoma exhibits nuclear beta-catenin and absent p63 Pilomatricoma exhibits absent both beta-catenin and p63
Answer: a
a) Pilomatricoma exhibits nuclear beta-catenin and nuclear p63 Explanation: The expression and distribution of certain proteins, such as beta-catenin and p63, can be used to differentiate pilomatricomas from other types of hair matrix tumors. Beta-catenin was positive in the basaloid cell population, showing both cytoplasmic and nuclear staining.[
3. What is the recommended treatment approach for pilomatricoma?
Surgical excision with clear margins Observation as the pilomatricoma will spontaneously regress Steroid injection Radiation therapy Topical chemotherapy
Answer: a
a) Surgical excision with clear margins. Because it is a benign tumor, complete removal with clear margins is usually curative and prevents recurrence.[
Pilomatricoma (also known as pilomatrixoma and calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe) is a benign tumor of hair follicle matrix that most frequently develops with bimodal age distribution of first and sixth decade.[
The histological appearance of a pilomatricoma is solid and nests of basaloid cells. This is different from other types of hair matrix tumors which typically have peripheral palisading. The presence of ghost cells, which are tiny, pale cells that seem “ghostly” under the microscope, is a crucial diagnostic clue of pilomatricomas. They arise when the cytoplasm of maturing cells is replaced by keratin, a protein found in the epidermis, or outermost layer of the skin.[
Pilomatricomas are commonly misdiagnosed and are rarely considered as part of the differential diagnosis due to multiple overlapping cytologic features as shown in
Pilomatricoma fine-needle aspiration alg orithm. SCC: Squamos cell carcinoma The figure was made using the software PowerPoint for Microsoft 365 (2024), Microsoft, USA.
Trichilemmal cysts (TCs) are benign cystic lesions originating from follicular isthmus epithelium and can present similar to pilomatricoma with slow-growing, asymptomatic, and firm nodules in the scalp.[
Epidermal inclusion cyst was considered on the differential and usually occurs on the scalp, neck, back, and extremities.[
MCCs do not have distinctive clinical features and can present as asymptomatic red or pink or blue papules or nodules.[
Differential diagnosis.
Diagnosis | Description | Physical examination | Histology | Fine-needle aspiration |
---|---|---|---|---|
TC | Slow-growing, asymptomatic or mildly painful. Usually present in the scalp. | Freely mobile, and firm, skin-colored nodules. TC Can be erythematous after trauma. | Cyst lumen contains homogeneous eosinophilic and keratinous materials. Cystic structure lined by stratified squamous epithelium without a granular cell layer.[ |
Anucleate and nucleated squamous cells without atypia, basaloid cells without peripheral palisading but with abrupt keratinization and keratinous debris.[ |
EIC | Asymptomatic, slowly enlarging, usually occur on the scalp, skin of head and neck, back and extremities.[ |
Firm, round, and subcutaneous nodule with central punctum.[ |
EIC is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium with a granular layer and contains lamellated keratin flakes.[ |
numerous anucleate squames alongside nucleated benign squamous cells. With secondary infection, aspirates turn turbid, showing inflammatory cells like neutrophils and histiocytes.[ |
Lipoma | Asymptomatic. | Skin-colored subcutaneous nodule. | Lobules of mature adipocytes separated by thin fibrous septa. | Mature adipocytes, which appear as large, uniform, and empty-appearing cells with eccentric nuclei.[ |
BCC | Slow-growing and commonly found in sun-exposed areas. | Nodular BCC can appear as a pearly, translucent papule or nodule with telangiectasia. | Nodular subtype-basaloid keratinocytes with peripheral palisading and clefting.[ |
Clusters of basaloid cells, possibly with peripheral palisading and mucinous stroma. |
SCC | Typically found on sun-exposed areas. | Red, scaly plaques or nodules, often with ulceration or crusting. | Atypical squamous cells with pleomorphism and mitotic figures, forming nests and infiltrating the dermis. Keratin pearls may be present.[ |
Dysplastic squamous cells, singly dispersed or in clusters, with high nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio and keratin pearls. |
MCC | Varying presentation. | Red or pink or blue papules or nodules | Round nuclei with finely granular chromatin, inconspicuous nucleoli, scant cytoplasm, showing molding, and crush artifact.[ |
Small, round, or oval cells with round-to-oval nuclei and scant cytoplasm. Nuclei have fine chromatin and small, inconspicuous nucleoli. Occasional nuclear molding can be observed.[ |
TC: Trichilemmal cyst, EIC: Epidermal inclusion cyst, BCC: Basal cell carcinoma, SCC: Squamous cell carcinoma, MCC: Merkel cell carcinoma
Rare pilomatrixoma can be elusive if not kept in the differential of basaloid neoplasms in fine needle aspiration of subcutaneous head-and-neck lesions. FNA from pilomatrixoma can be cellular with cells showing high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, prominent nuclei, and mitotic figures. Clumps of refractile keratin and “ghost cells” are major clues to appropriate diagnosis. Atypical basaloid cells and mitotic figures may lead to a diagnostic pitfall to report this entity as a malignancy. Ghost cells are important for the cytological diagnosis of pilomatricoma.
All data generated or analyzed during this study are included in this published article. No additional datasets were generated or analyzed during the current study. Therefore, data sharing is not applicable to this article as all necessary information is provided within.
FNAC – Fine-needle aspiration cytology.
CB, SA, MYAK and VBS: Made substantial contributions to the conception and design of the work, led the initial drafting of the manuscript, and was primarily responsible for its overall structure and content; CB and SA: Significantly contributed to the study design and data analysis; MYAK: Provided critical insights into the methodology and interpretation of results; VBS: Offered expert guidance on the clinical implications and supervised the project.
All authors critically reviewed and revised the manuscript to ensure its intellectual content and integrity, and have given final approval of the version to be published. They all agree to be accountable for all aspects of the work.
References
An unusual neck mass diagnosed by fine needle aspiration: Cytological findings and challenges
A 60-year-old woman with a left neck mass was referred for an ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration (FNA). Ultrasound examination revealed a 2.7 × 2.2 × 1.2 cm, well-circumscribed, solid, hypoechoic lesion with smooth sharp borders in the right neck at level 2A. During the physical examination and interview, the patient reported to have an undiagnosed palate mass. The left neck mass was targeted for FNA. The Diff-Quik stain of the smear showed clusters of papillary-like epithelioid cells with round-to-oval nuclei with wrinkled membranes and extracellular metachromatic stromal fragments. The Papanicolaou stain showed cells with nuclear grooves, small nucleoli, and fine vesicular chromatin. The cells had a moderate amount of delicate cytoplasm, focally intermingled with scant stromal components. The cell block also showed clusters of papillary structures with a cribriform-like architecture [
(a) Hypercellular smears consisting mostly of cohesive cellular aggregates with scattered single cells in the background. Metachromatic stromal fragments are present (Diff-Quik stain, ×10 objective). (b and c) Papillary clusters of neoplastic cells with slightly irregular small to mediumsized nuclei showing pale chromatin and intranuclear grooves (Papanicolaou stain, ×10 and ×60 objectives). (d) Hematoxylin and eosin stain of a cell-block section showing papillary-like structures with lumens consisting of small to medium-sized cells with pale nuclei (×40 objective).
Q1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma Salivary gland myoepithelioma Polymorphous adenocarcinoma (PAC) Pleomorphic adenoma Basal cell adenoma.
Answer: C
Slightly irregular nuclei with grooves similar to those seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland are present; however, intranuclear inclusions are absent. The cytological findings combined with clinical information regarding the presence of a mass in the palate are most consistent with metastatic PAC. Pleomorphic adenoma, basal cell adenoma, and myoepithelioma are benign tumors and do not metastasize to the neck lymph nodes.[
Q2. Which immunohistochemical panel and findings would be best to confirm the diagnosis of PAC?
Thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) positive, S100 positive, cytokeratin-7 (CK-7) positive TTF-1 negative, CK-7 positive, S100 positive CK-7 negative, paired-box gene 8 (PAX 8) positive, S100 negative p40 positive, p63 positive, S100 negative.
Answer: B
Immunohistochemistry panel was performed on the cell block which revealed these cells to be positive for CK-7, S100, and Sry-related HMg-Box 10 (SOX10) gene and negative for p40, p63, smooth muscle actin, TTF-1, thyroglobulin, and PAX8 [
(a) Cytokeratin-7 showing cytoplasmic stain (×40 objectives). (b) S100 demonstrates nuclear and cytoplasmic staining of neoplastic cells (×40 objectives). (c) SOX10 shows nuclear staining of the tumor cells (×40 objectives). (d) Thyroid transcription factor-1 shows negative nuclear stain (×40 objectives).
PAC is immunoreactive for CKs including CK7, in 100% of cases and S100 protein 97–100%. p63 is positive in 78–100% of cases, whereas p40 is usually negative.[
There is some degree of overlap in the immunohistochemical profile of secretory carcinoma of the salivary glands and PACs. Secretory carcinomas are positive for CK7, S100, SOX10, vimentin, and mammaglobin, and negative for p63, p40, NR4A3, and discovered on GIST-1.[
Q3. Which one of the following is correct about PAC?
PAC is the most common intraoral salivary gland tumor PAC commonly metastasizes to the neck lymph nodes PAC has an overall good prognosis The most common location of PAC is the parotid gland.
Answer: C.
PAC is the second most common intraoral salivary gland carcinoma, which rarely metastasizes to the neck lymph nodes. Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign tumor and mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of the minor salivary glands of the oral cavity.[
Q4. What chromosomal abnormality or molecular findings are seen in PAC?
ETS Variant Transcription Factor 6 (ETV6)-Neurotrophic Tyrosine Kinase Receptor Type 3 (NTRK3) fusion Myelobastosis viral oncogene homolog (MYB) and nuclear factor I/B (NFIB) and MYBL1-NFIB fusions Mutations in TP53 (55%), Harvey Rat sarcoma virus (HRAS) (23%), Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) (23%) Protein kinase D (PRKD)1, PRKD2, or PRKD3 fusions.
Answer: D.
Most cases of secretory carcinomas show chromosomal translocation, t (12; 15) (p13; q25) resulting in an ETV6-NTRK3 fusion. Adenoid cystic carcinomas have (6;9) or t (8;9) translocations, resulting in MYB-NFIB and MYBL1-NFIB fusions. Mutations in TP53 (55%), HRAS (23%), and PIK3CA (23%) are seen in salivary duct carcinoma. Conventional PAC has predominantly PRKD1 mutation and cribriform subtype has PRKD1,2,3 fusions. Cribriform subtypes are more likely metastasize to the neck lymph nodes.[
The patient underwent a right maxillectomy with ipsilateral neck dissection 5 months after the FNA procedure, which showed a 5.3 cm high-grade PAC with metastasis to the two lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the specimen revealed an infiltrative tumor with papillary structures, fibrous connective tissue stroma, and open chromatin nuclei [
(a) Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain shows an infiltrative neoplasm (×4 objective). (b) The tumor had a prominent papillary architecture (H&E, ×10 objective). (c) The nuclei show open chromatin (H&E, ×40 objective).
PAC of the minor salivary glands is a rare head-and-neck cancer, which generally has a good prognosis. PACs were previously known as “polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma”. The recent World Health Organization classification of head-and-neck tumors has characterized it as PAC.[
There are two subtypes of this tumor, conventional subtype and cribriform subtype. The conventional subtype shows various patterns, including tubules, trabeculae, and microcysts with a mucoid/myxoid background. The cribriform subtype shows papillary structures and glomeruloid bodies in a fibrous stroma. Their nuclei show open chromatin.[
Due to the intraoral location of PAC and rare occasions of metastasizing to the neck lymph nodes, these tumors are hardly sampled by FNA, and therefore, cytopathologists have less experience with the diverse cytomorphology of PAC.[
Overall, cytology smears show uniform moderately sized cells with relatively scant cytoplasm and round-to-oval nuclei, forming papillary, tubular, and irregular solid clusters. Dense globular or fibrillary stroma can be seen. Therefore, PAC can resemble adenoid cystic carcinoma or epithelial-rich pleomorphic adenoma. Occasional nuclear grooves and pale chromatin are also seen in PAC and can be misinterpreted as papillary thyroid carcinoma.[
In our case, TTF-1 and thyroglobulin stains were performed to rule out metastatic papillary thyroid carcinoma.
PAC is immunoreactive for CKs and S100 protein. Staining for p63 is variable. p40 is typically negative. Other positive immunomarkers include mammaglobin (67–100%), CD117 (60%), carcinoembryonic antigen (54%), glial fibrillary acidic protein (15%), melanoma-specific antigen (13%), and epithelial membrane antigen (12%).[
Pleomorphic adenomas are immunoreactive with pleomorphic adenoma gene 1 and human high-mobility group protein A2. Cytologically, most of the time, pleomorphic adenomas show the characteristic fibrillary matrix, mixed with myoepithelial cells which merge into the epithelial component. The chromatin of the tumor cells is dark unlike PAC.[
Adenoid cystic carcinomas are basaloid tumors. The smears show cohesive clusters of cells forming sheets or show tubular, complex, or cribriform architecture containing hyaline globules. The tumor cells have hyperchromatic nuclei.[
Other differential diagnosis includes cribriform-morular thyroid carcinoma (CMTC) which is now considered a distinct malignant thyroid neoplasm. The smears of CMTCs are hypercellular showing papillary and cribriform clusters with slit-like spaces and swirling of nuclei, representing morulae. Nuclei can show peculiar nuclear clearing with thick membranes, grooves, and pseudoinclusions.[
Genetic alterations in PRKD 1/2/3 genes have been described in PACs and may be useful in distinguishing PAC from other salivary gland neoplasms.[
In summary, the cytologic features of PAC overlap with other salivary gland neoplasms and papillary thyroid carcinoma. In our case, the immunohistochemical stains in addition to cytomorphology (pale chromatin and papillary-like structures) with the clinical information helped us reach a diagnosis of FNA.
FNA – Fine needle aspiration
PAC – Polymorphous adenocarcinoma.
References
Challenge in the cytological interpretation of a not-so-typical breast carcinoma
A 52-year-old postmenopausal female presented with swelling in the right breast of size 4x3 cm. Consistency was hard and margins were ill-defined. The nipple was retracted and the skin over the swelling was fixed to it, showing ulceration and puckering. The tumor was fixed to the chest wall. A history of blood-mixed discharge from the ulcer was present. No axillary lymph nodes were palpable. Clinically the stage of the lesion was T4cN0M0, Stage IIIB. Ultrasonography showed a solid cystic lesion in the breast which was reported as BIRADS IV and two subcentimetric lymph nodes were present in the right axilla. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears showed predominantly sheets and clusters of cells with abundant vacuolated cytoplasm, along with clusters of epithelial cells that showed abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. The background showed acute and chronic inflammatory cells, occasional giant histiocytes, bare nuclei, and proteinaceous material. Biopsy showed two populations of cells with sharply defined cell borders, one with abundant eosinophilic, periodic acid-schiff (PAS) positive, diastase resistant, granular cytoplasm, and the other with abundant vacuolated cytoplasm. The cells showed marked pleomorphism, vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli with brisk mitotic activity, and atypical mitosis. Subsequently modified radical mastectomy specimen confirmed the infiltrative nature of the tumor. The tumor cells were arranged in papillary, micropapillary, acinar and the tubular patterns, and solid sheets. Extensive necrosis, stromal desmoplastic reaction, acute and chronic inflammatory cells, and vascular tumor emboli were also found. No ductal carcinoma
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Secretory carcinoma Oncocytic carcinoma Apocrine carcinoma Lipid-rich carcinoma
c. Apocrine carcinoma
The patient presented with features of invasive carcinoma of the breast and with skin ulceration. Fine needle Aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears predominantly showed cells with abundant vacuolated cytoplasm [
Microphotographs of the cytology smears (May GrunwaldGiemsa [MGG]): (a and b) (MGG, ×200), Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears showing cells with vacuolated cytoplasm, (c) (MGG, ×200) FNAC smear showing benign ductal epithelial cells with apocrine metaplasia along with the foamy cells, (d and e) (MGG, ×400) Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears showing cells with vacuolated cytoplasm, (f) (MGG, ×1000) Cells with well-defined cytoplasmic borders.
Gross and histopathology of the lesion: (a) Gross image of the modified radical mastectomy specimen, (b) Cut section of the tumor, (c) Histological section of the tumor (hematoxylin & eosin [H & E], ×200), and (d) Section showing the cells with apocrine differentiation (H & E, ×400).
The diagnostic interpretation of apocrine carcinoma on cytology smears may be challenging due to its morphologic mimics. FNAC smears show large polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm and sharply defined borders. The nuclei are vesicular, with irregular nuclear bor ders, and show prominent nucleoli.[
Which of the following immunohistochemical marker is generally negative in apocrine carcinoma of breast?
ER AR HER2 GCDFP-15
a. ER
Apocrine carcinomas lack ER and PRs, Bcl-2, but have AR and express gross cystic disease fluid protein-15 (GCDFP-15), GATA binding protein 3, CK7, CK8, CK18, CK19, CK20, expression of MUC1 (EMA), and E-Cadherin. HER2/neu may or may not be positive. Basal cytokeratins such as CK5/6, CK14, CK17, and p63 are variably positive. GCDFP is present in the breast cysts and in apocrine cells of mammary glands, salivary glands, sweat glands, Paget disease, etc. HER2/neu is positive in 30–60% of carcinomas with apocrine differentiation. GCDFP-15 and AR are considered the hallmarks of apocrine differentiation [
Immunohistochemistry of the tumor: (a) Estrogen receptor (ER) is negative in tumor cells (ER and Diaminobenzidine [DAB], ×200), (b) Progesterone receptor (PR) is negative in tumor cells (PR and DAB, ×200), (c) Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)/neu shows diffuse, strong membranous positivity (Grade 3+) (HER2 and DAB, ×200), (d) Ki-67 (Proliferation marker) is positive in 46% of cells (Ki-67 and DAB, ×200), (e) Cytokeratin (CK5/6/8/18): Strong cytoplasmic to membranous positivity in >50% of the cells (CK5/6/8/18 and DAB, ×200), and (f) Androgen receptor is positive in the nuclei of cells with apocrine morphology (androgen receptor and DAB, ×200).
To be designated as “Carcinoma with apocrine differentiation,” _________% of the tumor cells should have distinct apocrine morphology.
50% 25% 75% 90%
d. 90%
To be designated as “Carcinoma with apocrine differentiation,” the distinct apocrine morphology should be evident in >90% of the cancer cells. Previously, the cutoff percentage of tumor cells had been defined as 75% by Japaze
Is apocrine carcinoma associated with BRCA 1 or 2?
Yes No Not applicable Cannot be commented.
b. No
Although loss of PTEN (Phosphatase and tensin homolog) function may indicate familial breast carcinoma, there is no association between apocrine carcinoma and BRCA1 or BRCA2.[
Which of the following breast carcinomas has a worse prognosis?
Triple-negative invasive breast carcinoma of no special type Triple-negative invasive apocrine carcinoma Luminal A type breast carcinoma Luminal B type breast carcinoma
a. Triple-negative invasive duct carcinoma of no special type
The triple-negative subtype of apocrine carcinoma of the breast has better prognosis than triple-negative invasive breast carcinoma of no special type (NST), as targeted therapy with drugs used in prostate carcinoma such as fluoxymesterone that inhibits androgen signaling, is available.[
Invasive carcinoma of breast with apocrine differentiation is a special subtype of breast carcinoma.[
Apocrine carcinoma was first described by Krompecher
The 5th edition of the World Health Organization (WHO) Classification of Breast Tumors recognized “Carcinoma with apocrine differentiation” as a distinct entity. Apocrine differentiation occurs in invasive carcinomas NST, lobular, tubular, medullary, and micropapillary carcinomas, DCIS, and lobular carcinoma
Apocrine carcinoma arises from the milk duct of the breast. Grossly, it presents as a solidified whitish mass. It generally presents with skin ulceration. Nipple discharge may or may not be present. It has been reported in accessory breast also. The growth pattern is like that of invasive duct carcinoma. The cells of apocrine carcinoma have abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm, well-defined cytoplasmic borders, apical snouting at places, large round vesicular nuclei, and multiple nucleoli.
Differential diagnoses of carcinoma with apocrine differentiation include malignancies such as secretory carcinoma, oncocytic carcinoma, lipid-rich carcinoma, invasive duct carcinoma, and benign lesions such as granular cell tumor, apocrine metaplasia, and histiocytic proliferation [
Algorithm for the cytological approach to cells with vacuolated cytoplasm in breast aspirate. (PAS: periodic acid-schiff, H/O: History of.) Algorithm plotted using Microsoft PowerPoint [Microsoft Office Standard 2016, Version 16.0; Manufacturer: Microsoft Corporation, Origin: Silicon Valley, CA, USA]
Differentiation of breast carcinoma with cells having vacuolated cytoplasm by immunohistochemical evaluation of cell block sections.
Breast carcinoma subtype | Cellblock IHC (Immunohistochemistry) profile |
---|---|
Apocrine Ca | ER−, PR−, HER2±, AR+, GCDFP+, GATA-3+, Mammaglobin+, CK7+, CK8+, CK18+, CK19+, CK20+, EMA+, E-cadherin+, Bcl-2− |
Sebaceous Ca | ER±, PR±, HER2+, AR+ |
Secretory Ca | ER−, PR−, HER2−, EMA+, α-Lactalbumin+, S100+, E-cadherin+, CK8+, CK18+, CD117+, α-SMA+, Mammaglobin+, GCDFP+, SOX10+, Pan-TRK |
Papillary Ca | ER+, PR+, HER2−, CK8+, CK18+ CK5/6−, CK14− |
Mucinous Ca | ER+, PR+, WT1+, AR±, HER2− |
IHC: Immunohistochemistry, ER: Estrogen receptor, PR: Progesterone receptor, GCDFP 15: Gross cystic disease fluid protein 15, GATA-3: GATA-binding protein 3, AR: Androgen receptor, HER2: Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2, CK: Cytokeratin, EMA: Expression of MUC1
Focal apocrine changes can be seen in several breast lesions ranging from benign cysts to invasive carcinomas. Benign breast lesions with apocrine morphology include fibrocystic disease, apocrine cysts, the apocrine adenosis, and apocrine adenoma. Malignant lesions with apocrine morphology include apocrine DCIS and apocrine carcinoma. Hence, diagnosis of apocrine carcinoma can be challenging. Overlapping of cells, nuclear pleomorphism, and high N: C ratio are not usually seen in benign lesions with apocrine differentiation.[
Cytogenetic analysis of apocrine carcinoma cells reveals gains of 1p, 1q, 2q, 7 and 17, losses of 1p, 12q, 16q, 17q, and 22q.[
Electron microscopy of the apocrine carcinoma cells shows abundant cytoplasm with well-defined outlines, membrane-bound electron-dense granules in the cytoplasm, abundant Golgi apparatus, mitochondria with incomplete cristae and perinuclear condensation, and empty vesicles. In oncocytic carcinoma, numerous mitochondria are seen occupying >60% of the cytoplasm and they are seen to be dispersed, in contrast to apocrine carcinoma.[
In the gene expression studies, these tumors express luminal cytokeratins (AMACR) and lack basal features. Hence, these tumors are called “Luminal Androgen Receptor” (LAR) tumors. A small proportion of cases may show a basal phenotype. AMACR is positive in 97% of invasive carcinomas with apocrine differentiation, the 96% of apocrine DCIS, but only in 22% of carcinomas without apocrine differentiation.[
Next-generation sequencing frequently shows loss of PIK3CA/PTEN/AKT and TP53, followed by mutations of KRAS, NRAS, and BRAF.[
Genetic studies on the AR gene showed the highest CAG repeats in DCIS with apocrine differentiation compared to fibroadenomas and invasive breast carcinomas.[
The expression of PD-L1 is low in apocrine carcinoma. They are found to be microsatellite stable.[
The unavailability of molecular and genetic studies due to financial constraints in the setting of developing countries may pose the challenge in diagnosing apocrine carcinoma.[
Apocrine carcinoma is an aggressive malignancy that tends to ulcerate the skin, and metastasize to lymph nodes. It is of two types – triple-negative and HER2-positive. Even in triple-negative cases, targeted therapy with anti-androgen is available. Hence, making a correct diagnosis of the tumor is necessary. Whenever vacuolated cells are encountered in the cytology smears, especially in an elderly female/male, it is prudent to sample the lesion thoroughly so that making an inappropriate diagnosis can be avoided.
The datasets used and/or analyzed during the current study are available from the corresponding author upon reasonable request.
AMACR – Alpha-methyl acyl-CoA racemase
GATA3 – GATA binding protein 3
GCDFP 15 – Gross cystic disease fluid protein 15
AR – Androgen receptor
DCIS – Ductal carcinoma
LCIS – Lobular carcinoma
ER – Estrogen receptor
FNAC – Fine-needle aspiration cytology
H & E – Hematoxylin & Eosin
IHC – Immunohistochemistry
LAR – Luminal androgen receptor
MGG – May Grunwald-Giemsa
MRM – Modified radical mastectomy
PR – Progesterone receptor.
References
Squash surprise in an elderly female
A 57-year-old female presented with nausea, vomiting, and headache over a year. The patient had no specific complaints except for gradual weight loss over the past year. Computed tomography scan (CT) was done. T2-weighted sagittal images show an ill-defined T2 hyperintense cystic space occupying a lesion in the occipital lobe. There is ipsilateral compression of the occipital horn of the ventricle and disproportionate perilesional edema with midline shift [
(a) Computed tomography (CT) image showing ill defined T2 hyperintense cystic space occupying lesion in the occipital lobe. (b-c) Squash cytology smears showing cohesive clusters of hyperchromatic tumor cells against a thin mucoidy background and foci of calcification(blue arrow). (b, c: Hematoxylin and Eosin H&E, 200x and 40x.).
Definitive sections were sent for histopathology and immunohistochemical staining was done.
What is the diagnosis based on the clinical history, imaging findings, and photomicrographs [ Glioma Meningioma Metastatic carcinoma Lymphoma Which of the following immunohistochemical panels would be most useful for diagnosis? CK7, CK20, TTF-1, GATA3, PAX-8, CDX2 CK7, CK20, Calretinin, WT1 IDH1/2, ATRX, P53 GFAP, Vimentin, NeuN
1. (c) Metastatic carcinoma
2. (a) CK7, CK20, TTF-1, GATA3, PAX-8, and CDX2
Squash smear cytology is a rapid and reliable method for intraoperative diagnosis of inflammatory and neoplastic brain lesions.[
Squash smears were moderately cellular and showed cohesive clusters and glandular arrangement of tumor cells against a thin mucoid background [
Microphotograph panel (a-d) showing well-formed glands and solid sheets of tumor cells with pools of mucin and focal calcification (hematoxylin and eosin stain) (a: 40x, b: 100x, c: 200x, d: 400x), (e) Tumor sections showing immunopositivity for CK7 200x (f) Tumor sections showing immunopositivity for CK20 [IPOX] 200x.
The most common tumors leading to brain metastases include lung and breast followed by renal tumors. In the present case, the tumor cells showed strong immunopositivity for CK7 and were immunonegative for CK20 [
3. Which of the following is the most common intracranial tumor?
Gliomas Metastases Meningioma Lymphoma
4. Which of the following is a differential diagnosis of metastases to the brain?
Abscess Parasitic infestation Primary tumor-glioma/ependymoma All of the above
3. (b) Metastas es
4. (d) All of the above
The differential diagnosis of metastases to the brain includes primary tumors of the brain, parasites, and abscesses.
Squash cytology smears of glial tumors are cellular with specific cytomorphological features of the tumor cells. For instance, the squash smears of low-grade gliomas show sparse cellularity of tumor cells in a fibrillary background in contrast to high-grade gliomas which are characterized by hypercellularity, endothelial proliferation, necrosis, and mitoses. Necrosis is also often noted in cases of brain abscess, characteristically described as liquefactive necrosis. Fungal, tubercular, and parasitic infestation can also show necrotic background.
Metastases to the brain are a known complication in approximately 20% of malignancies.[
These cases are challenging and the surgeon relies on intraoperative diagnosis for immediate surgical management. In such scenarios, squash cytology can be reliably used to differentiate between metastatic from primary central nervous system neoplasms.
The squash smear cytomorphology depends on the type of primary tumor (adenocarcinoma, small cell carcinomas, melanoma, lymphoma, etc.). An algorithmic approach and workup with immunohistochemical markers can be useful for the detection of the primary tumor.
Immunohistochemical panel for morphologically designated adenocarcinoma of unknown primary involves the cytokeratin status (CK7 and CK20). Further organ-specific markers can be tested after analysis of CK7 and CK20 expression.[
In the index case, CK7 immunopositivity was found; however, the patient was lost to follow-up and further markers were not done.
Extensive radiological examination and accurate subtyping of the primary tumor enable the pathologist to choose the apt immunohistochemistry marker panel and document the origin of the tumor.
The awareness of metastatic carcinoma as a differential diagnosis on cytology and identification of cytomorphological features can guide the surgeon and management of the patient.
References
Atypical epithelioid cells in pleural effusion as foreign second population: A diagnostic cytopathology dilemma
A 56-year-old female presented with a right pleural effusion. The chest computed tomography (CT) showed a round mass shadow of the right middle and lower lobe of the lung. The pleural fluid showed atypical epithelioid cells [
(a) Pleural effusion smear showed many atypical epithelioid cells as second foreign population (high magnification of hematoxylin eosin (Hematoxylin and Eosin 200×)). (b) The embedded pleural fluid section showed that the tumor cells were scattered or clustered (medium magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin 200×). (c) The embedded pleural fluid section showed significant atypia, nuclear disorientation and nucleolus (high magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin 400×).
Q1. What is your interpretation of the pleural effusion smear?
Proliferated mesothelial cells Mesothelioma Metastatic adenocarcinoma Malignant cells, pending immune characterization
The correct cytological interpretation is d.
A diagnosis of the pleural effusion cell block is a “malignant tumor.” The pleural effusion smear cells block showed tumor cells epithelioid, with significant atypical, prominent nucleoli and giant tumor cells, and nuclear deviation. In this case, the touch prep shows variably sized loose clusters and single cells with acinar formation. The cells show abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. The nuclei have moderate-to-severe heteroplasia with occasional prominent nucleoli. At the time, “malignant tumor” was the most appropriate diagnosis. The differential diagnosis would include suspicion for carcinoma and other sarcomas.
Q2. Hematoxylin-eosin(HE) stained sections are prepared from the tissue cores [
Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) Epithelioid Sarcoma Sarcomatoid carcinoma Metastatic epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (EHE)
(a) Tumor cells were seen in the fibrous stroma as epithelioid, with the low magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin, 40×. (b) The tumor cells were arranged in two ways. The glandular and the solid area are patchy, with a medium magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin, 100×. (c) A small amount of red blood cells can be seen in the vascular lumen. The cells had significant atypia and high magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin, 200×. (d) The cells in the solid area were epithelioid or short spindle-shaped, with nuclear deviation, with high magnification of Hematoxylin and Eosin, 400×.
The correct cytological interpretation is d.
Immunohistochemical (IHC) staining was performed by the envisioned method. The results of IHC staining were as follows:
Tumor cells did not express CKpan, TTF1, P40, GATA3, CD10, calretinin, smooth muscle actin, or desmin; tumor cells expressed vascular markers such as CAMTA1, CD31, and ERG [
(a) Immunohistochemical (IHC) CAMTA1 test showed that the tumor nucleus was positive, amplified by the envision method, 100×. (b) IHC CD31 test showed that the tumor nucleus was positive, amplified by the envision method, 100×. (c) IHC ERG test showed that the tumor nucleus was positive, amplified by the envision method, 100×. (d) Fluorescence
Microscopic appearance: Tumor cells in the biopsy tissue were arranged in two ways: Adenoid structural area and solid area. A small amount of red blood cells could be seen.
In the cavity of the adenoid area, epithelioid tumor cells, conspicuous small nucleoli could be seen, and tumor cells had significant atypia. Short spindle cells could be seen in the solid area, some nuclei were large and biased. Moreover, some cells had cytoplasmic vacuoles, and a single red blood cell could be seen in individual cytoplasmic vacuoles.
No clear myxochondroid or no clear myxochondroid or hyaline matrix was found. IHC staining was as follows: Tumor cells did not express CKpan, TTF1, P40, and so on; so, epithelial cancer was not considered. Tumor cells expressed vascular markers such as CD31, and ERG positive; so, EHE specific antibody CAMTA1 was added and positive. T (1p36) (CAMTA1) gene translocation (+) was detected by FISH (Note: Red and green separation signals can be seen in >50% of tumor cells). Hence, we considered it as EHE, angiosarcoma differentiated in some areas with blood lakes.
The final diagnosis was EHE of the lung with angiosarcoma-like components.
EHE is a rare low-grade malignant angiogenic tumor that is most common in the lung and liver, always with multiple nodules.
EHE was first proposed by Weiss and Enzinger[
Morphologically, mucinous cartilage-like matrix or hyaline degeneration, the tumor cells were arranged in a cord or nest shape. The tumor cells were relatively uniform in size, round, and oval. The nuclear chromatin was consistent, and the nucleolus was not prominent. The cytoplasm was light eosinophilic, or the nucleus was biased. Moreover, vacuoles could be seen in some cytoplasm containing single or multiple red blood cells, which are called vesicular cells. It suggested the formation of a vascular lumen. Nuclear mitosis and necrosis were rare in classic EHE tumors.
Many studies have reported the morphological characteristics and diagnostic criteria of atypical EHE. The morphological criteria of atypical EHE vary in different studies, including tumor size, necrosis, nuclear grade, and threshold of the mitotic count. Anderson
EHE tumor cells express the vascular markers CD31, CD34, ERG, and FLI1. Cytokeratin can be expressed in 25% ~ 30% of cases, especially in biopsy specimens, which may be misdiagnosed as poorly differentiated carcinoma.[
Atypical EHE and epithelioid angiosarcoma can cross and migrate morphologically. The application of IHC markers and the detection of specific fusion genes are very essential for differential diagnosis. Approximately 90% of EHE can produce t (1; 3) (p36.3; q23-25) ectopically, resulting in the WWTR1-CAMTA1 fusion gene, while about 5% of EHE contains the YAP1-TFE3 gene fusion. Studies have shown that EHE of ectopic fusion of the WWTR1 gene is rarely reported and mainly occurs in the heart.[
Pulmonary EHE intersects with poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, epithelioid angiosarcoma, and epithelioid hemangioma, which need to be differentiated according to microscopic morphology, IHC, and molecular detection.
Epithelial cells or scattered vacuolar cells with nest-like arrangement in the lung EHE are easily misdiagnosed as poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. In contrast to EHE, tumor cells have obvious atypia and obvious mitotic images. IHC shows CK pan positivity and vascular marker negativity. Therefore, if CK pan is negative in poorly differentiated tumors, it is suggested to add antigenic markers for identification.
In contrast to EHE, epithelioid angiosarcoma is more prone to interstitial hemorrhage, blood lake formation, papillary or fissure growth of tumor cells, obvious large nucleoli, active mitotic imaging, and so on. In addition to classic EHE, vascular lacunar-like structures were found in some areas, with significant atypia and mitotic images. However, both CAMTA1 IHC staining and FISH probes were positive. Therefore, this case was diagnosed as EHE with epithelioid angiosarcoma transformation in some areas.[
There are few cells in the nest of epithelioid hemangioma with vacuolar cytoplasmic vacuoles and red blood cells in the nest of epithelioid hemangioma, which suggests microvascular formation. Eosinophil infiltration can be seen around erythrocytes. These conditions are easily misdiagnosed as EHE. However, most EHE had no clear formation of vascular lacuna, the stromal was often mucinous cartilage-like, and most of them had no eosinophil infiltration.[
It often occurs in the limbs with the growth of tumor cells in multiple nodules under the microscope, and necrosis often occurs in the center of the nodule. In contrast to EHE, epithelioid sarcoma cells can express epithelial markers such as AE1/AE3 and epithelial membrane antigen (EMA), and the expression of INI1 is often absent.[
EHE has limited experience in treatment, and more radical treatment may be needed. Therefore, surgical resection should ensure that the cutting edge is negative, supplemented by radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and targeted therapy if necessary.[
A rare case of epithelioid hemangioendothelioma transforming from some areas to epithelioid angiosarcoma was discussed. Under a microscope, except for the classic EHE area, vascular lacuna formation was seen in some areas. Tumor cell atypia, mitotic imaging, and proliferative activity were significantly higher than those in the EHE area. IHC techniques and FISH detection confirmed that CAMTA1 gene translocation occurred in this case. Vascular lacunae and tumor cell atypia were found in some areas, suggesting that they may be transformed into epithelioid angiosarcoma.
A case of EHE with epithelioid angiosarcoma of the spine is reported in the literature,[
The patient received chemotherapy (albumin paclitaxel 420 mg/dL, carboplatin 680 mg/dL) combined with bevacizumab (400 mg/dL) injection intravenously on January 26, 2022. At present, the fourth course of treatment has been carried out. The current situation was stable.
From atypical morphology to final accurate diagnosis benefitting from immunohistochemistry and molecular diagnosis, we learned the development process of disease progression. We should not only recognize the classic morphology but also find clues regarding the classic morphology in atypical patients to provide a basis for accurate clinical diagnosis and treatment.
CT - Computed Tomography
EHE - Epithelioid Hemangioendothelioma
FISH - Fluorescence in situ Hybridization
HE - Hematoxylin-Eosin staining
IHC - Immunohistochemical
NSCLC - Non-small Cell Lung Cancer.
The manuscript was approved by all authors for publication. Substantial contributions to the conception, drafting the work and the acquisition, analysis of data for the work: S Z; Reviewing it critically for important intellectual content, and interpretation of data for the work: C W; Agreement to be accountable for all aspects of the work in ensuring that questions related to the accuracy, complete the Fish for the work, and interpretation of data for the work: W W;Design of the work, reviewing it critically for important intellectual content, and resolved any part of the work appropriately: L H. All authors contributed to editorial changes in the manuscript. All authors read and approved the final manuscript. All authors have participated sufficiently in the work and agreed to be accountable for all aspects of the work.
The Institutional Review Board of Shanghai Pulmonary Hospital approved this retrospective study (IRB NO. K22-081Y).
Written informed consent was obtained from all the participants prior to the publication of this study.
References
HPV-negative and high-grade finding in Pap cytology
A 69-year-old post-menopausal female with past medical history of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, status post-total abdominal hysterectomy for uterine tumor, and chemotherapy presented with abnormal vaginal bleeding. Computerized tomography (CT) scan chest/ abdomen/pelvis revealed a 2.9 × 2.0 cm mass in the vaginal cuff. High-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV) testing was negative. Papanicolaou (Pap)-stained ThinPrep showed atypical hyperchromatic-crowded groups (HCGs) [
Pap stain: (a: ×20; b: ×40) Clusters of epithelial cells with high nucleocytoplasmic ratio; hyperchromatic nuclei; prominent nucleoli; nuclear overcrowding; and indistinct cell borders, (c: ×20; d: ×40) mesenchymal element demonstrating cigar-shaped to spindle cells (arrows) with clusters of inflammatory cells.
The findings in Pap smear [
Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LGSIL) Atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance (AGUS) Adenocarcinoma Carcinosarcoma (Malignant-mixed Mullerian tumor)
a. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LGSIL)
LGSIL (Option a) is characterized by distinct cytological features. The cells exhibit nuclear enlargement, typically 3 times the normal size without significantly high nuclear to cytoplasmic (N/C) ratio. Koilocytic changes include hyperchromasia along with coarse chromatin and nuclear membrane irregularities with diagnostic empty perinuclear cytoplasmic space sharply demarcated from peripheral cytoplasm. Binucleation and multinucleation are is frequent. Nucleoli are generally inconspicuous or absent. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion may show increased keratinization seen as dense orangeophilic (atypical parakeratosis).[
This is a case of recurrent uterine carcinosarcoma (UCS). The patient presented with chief complaints of abnormal vaginal bleeding for the past 1 month. Four years before this consultation, the patient underwent total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO), and pelvic lymph node sampling. Evaluation of the hysterectomy of the specimen revealed a stage IB UCS. She underwent chemotherapy; however, after 2 cycles, her thrombocytopenia got exacerbated, and chemotherapy was terminated.
During the present consultation, rectovaginal examination revealed a mass on the left vaginal apex. On CT scan, chest/ abdomen/pelvis revealed a 2.9 × 2.0 cm vaginal mass. There was no evidence of metastatic disease in the chest, abdomen, or pelvis. Pap smear and concurrent left vaginal biopsy were done. Pap smear revealed a biphasic neoplasm composed of atypical glandular cells with a spindle cell component. The malignant glandular component was comprised three-dimensional hyperchromatic crowded cell groups with high N/C ratio, coarse clumped chromatin, and occasional prominent nucleoli, whereas spindle cell components demonstrated high N/C ratio, hyperchromasia, irregular chromatin, and nuclear pleomorphism.
Histopathological examination (H&E) of the left vaginal biopsy [
Left vaginal biopsy; (a: H&E, ×4; b: H&E, ×10; c: H&E, Zoomed) demonstrated sheets of pleomorphic spindle cells with variable cellularity. (d-f: immunohistochemistry, ×10) focal immunoreactivity for CAM5. 2, aberrant p53 expression, and non-immunoreactivity for desmin.
Based on cytology and vaginal biopsy findings, a diagnosis of vaginal cuff recurrence of carcinosarcoma was made, and the patient underwent external beam radiation therapy and vaginal brachytherapy.
Depending on multiple variables from cytomorphological features sampled in the Pap smear to the interpreter experience adenocarcinoma (Option c) and the carcinomatous component of UCS may have to be interpreted as atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance (AGUS) (Option b). However, the presence of spindle cells and the patient’s history of UCS would point to the definitive interpretation as carcinosarcoma (malignant mixed Mullerian tumor).
A biphasic neoplasm showing both a malignant epithelial component and a spindle cell/mesenchymal component on a Pap smear should raise the suspicion for the possibility of carcinosarcoma.[
The carcinomatous component of UCS is more readily identifiable than the mesenchymal component [
Publish metadata.
S. No. | Author/Year | No. of cases | Pap type | Findings |
---|---|---|---|---|
1. | Tenti |
10 | Conventional | 7 positive smears (2 diagnosed as a mixed tumor at first examination, 1 upon revision). |
2. | Costa |
21 | Conventional | Sarcoma component was absent in 4 out of 9 (44%) positive smears available for cytology review. |
3. | Casey |
9 | Conventional | Five abnormal Pap smears were available for review: Epithelial component positive in all five cases. Mesenchymal component was absent in all five cases |
4. | Snyder |
25 | Conventional | 60% (15/25) were read as abnormal. All malignant elements were epithelial. Two cases (8%) had atypical spindle cells, but no diagnostic sarcoma. |
5. | Salman |
1 | SurePath (LBC) | Cervical smear positive for glandular elements and some spindle-shaped cells. |
6. | Gupta |
8 | SurePath (LBC) | Malignant epithelial component in all eight cases Sarcomatous elements in three cases. |
7. | Hanley |
40 | 4 conventional, 36 liquid based | 11 (27.5%) - negative. 5 (12.5%) - atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance, 6 (15%) as AGUS. 16 (40%) as malignant. 2 (5%) as high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions. |
AGUS: Atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance, LBC: Liquid-based cytology
This is an important diagnostic pitfall in cytology as most cases of UCS may be reported as AGUS, squamous cell carcinoma, endometrial adenocarcinoma, poorly differentiated carcinoma, or adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified.[
Detecting UCS through cytologic examination poses diagnostic challenges due to several factors. These challenges include sampling errors, random exfoliation of cells, cellular degeneration, and sporadic shedding of mesenchymal component.[
In the current case, on initial review, the smear was interpreted as a hypercellular smear with an inflammatory background, cellular degeneration, and numerous malignant glandular cells in clusters and three-dimensional balls [
It is important to consider that, while HPV testing is a helpful tool in cervical cancer screening, a negative high-risk HPV test does not automatically exclude malignancy, because some malignancies arising in the uterine corpus or adnexa can be identified in cervical smears due to exfoliation, drop metastasis, and/or direct extension to cervix, such as UCS endometrial carcinomas, clear cell carcinoma, high-grade serous carcinoma, and mesonephric adenocarcinoma are not HPV related.
Furthermore, there are other aggressive cancers such as endometrial carcinomas, clear cell carcinoma, high-grade serous carcinoma, mesonephric adenocarcinoma, and adenocarcinomas arising from other sites that show high-grade morphology in Pap smears despite testing negative for HPV.[
One of the potential reasons for the initial omission of the mesenchymal elements is the frequent association of atrophic changes in the elderly patients with abundant inflammatory cells and cellular degeneration with many HCGs of PBCs in Pap smears. Another possibility could be the inability to detect spindle cells/mesenchymal elements in Pap smear on the first look as the mesenchymal element with atypical spindle cells [as in the current case,
It is crucial to understand that a significant percentage of women with AGUS may turn out to be high-grade pre-invasive squamous disease, adenocarcinoma
Algorithmic approach for evaluating atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance in post-menopausal women with reference to uterine carcinosarcoma (UCS). This is not for definitive diagnosis of UCS.
Most common mutations in uterine carcinosarcoma?
TP53 mutations HER2 TERT KRAS.
Most consistent independent predictor of outcome
Age at presentation Stage Angioinvasion Depth of invasion Number of mitotic figures.
UCS, previously known as malignant mixed Müllerian tumor, is a rare and aggressive biphasic tumor in the female reproductive system, accounting for <5% of uterine tumors. It is characterized by the presence of high-grade epithelial and mesenchymal components. UCS is commonly diagnosed in postmenopausal women with a history of bleeding with a median age of presentation of 62 years.[
It is biologically a de-differentiated endometrial carcinoma with its own pathogenesis and molecular profile.[
TP53/p53 abnormalities are present in a majority of the UCS. The proportion of replicative DNA polymerase epsilon (POLE) and hypermutated microsatellite instability-high is related to the epithelial component, being approximately 25% and 3% in endometrioid and non-endometrioid components.[
Histologically, the malignant cell in UCS exhibits a biphasic nature; the carcinomatous component is usually endometrioid or serous, but clear and undifferentiated may be seen. The sarcomatous component is usually high-grade sarcoma NOS, but heterologous elements (rhabdo, chondro, osteo, and lipo) might be encountered.[
Recommended treatment for UCS involves surgical staging with total hysterectomy with BSO, pelvic lymphadenectomy, para-aortic lymph node sampling, and peritoneal washings.[
The Pap smear can serve as both a screening and diagnostic tool. It is essential to consider UCS as one of the possible potential differentials, particularly in post-menopausal women presenting with vaginal bleeding. An algorithmic approach in the case of AGUS favoring neoplasia can facilitate correct interpretation of UCS in Pap smears. Comprehensive evaluation, incorporating clinical history and histological biopsies, should be considered while interpreting the result of Pap smears with AGUS. It is essential to report on both the carcinomatous and sarcomatous components for proper management.
Answers for Question 2 through 3:
2. a 3. b
References
An uncommon vascular lesion over the right hand
A 45-year female presented with progressively enlarging, 2 × 1 cm, soft, mobile, non-tender swelling over the dorsum of the right hand around the wrist joint for 6 months. Fine needle aspiration cytology are shown in
(a) Isolated cell clusters with plump nuclei displaying “hobnailing” (May Grunwald-Giemsa stain ×100). (b) There is moderate pleomorphism with distinct nucleoli (Papanicolaou stain ×400). (c) A venous wall with intravascular organized thrombus (Hematoxylin and Eosin stain ×400). (d) Thrombus invaginated by anastomosing delicate papillae with a hyalinized core lined by endothelial cells (Hematoxylin and Eosin stained cell-block section ×100). (e) Plump endothelial cells with hobnail nuclei (Hematoxylin and Eosin stained cell-block section ×400).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Hemangioma Angiosarcoma Papillary endothelial hyperplasia (PEH) Hobnail hemangioendothelioma.
Answer: c. Papillary endothelial hyperplasia (PEH)
Common sites of involvement by PEH include the head-and-neck, lip, tongue, buccal mucosa, and limbs. Usually presents as a reddish-blue nodular lesion in the skin or mucosa.[
Q2. Which among the following finding is characteristically seen in PEH
Hobnail Thrombus Nuclear atypia Necrosis.
The differential diagnoses considered include vasoformative lesions such as hemangioma, angiosarcoma, and hobnail hemangioendothelioma. Hemangioma and angiosarcoma commonly involve the skin and subcutis of the head-and-neck region. Angiosarcomas exhibit marked nuclear atypia, necrosis, and mitoses. They are never confined to the intravascular location.[
Q3. Which of the following is a reactive, non-neoplastic process.
Arteriovenous malformation Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia PEH Hobnail hemangioma.
Q4. Papillary endothelial hyperplasia is not a common feature of PEH:
Usually begins within a thrombosed blood vessel They usually have abundant thrombotic material They show papillae are lined by plump, normochromatic endothelial cells, in a single, non-stratified layer PEH shows frequent mitotic figures.
Papillary endothelial hyperplasia is a reactive, non-neoplastic lesion representing an exuberant organization and recanalization of the thrombus.[
PEH is an exuberant intravascular, endothelial cell proliferation mimicking a neoplastic tumor of vascular origin with papillary tufting and “hobnail” morphology.[
Papillary endothelial hyperplasia carries a significant potential for misdiagnosis as angiosarcoma. Cytopathological diagnosis of this uncommon reactive vascular lesion is difficult only on FNA findings. A vascular lesion may be considered, especially when polygonal cells with plump nuclei and “hobnail” morphology are seen in a hemorrhagic background. The cytological differential diagnoses to be considered include the common neoplastic vascular lesions. Histomorphology of the resected specimen helps provide conclusive evidence in excluding the neoplastic nature of the vascular lesion.
References
Unusual findings on fine-needle aspiration cytology of a retroperitoneal mass
A 77-year-old male presented with intermittent abdominal pain. CT scan revealed a 4.7 cm retroperitoneal mass. A subsequent fine-needle aspiration (FNA)with a core biopsy revealed basophilic clumps of acellular homogenous material on Diff Quik stains performed during rapid on site evaluation [
(a) Retroperitoneal fine-needle aspiration (FNA): Diff Quik Stain showing acellular, blue, amorphous material. (b) Retroperitoneal FNA: Pap stain showing acellular, greenish, rounded amorphous material. (c) Retroperitoneal FNA: Cell block with H and E stain showing hyaline deposits of amorphous eosinophilic material, amidst benign liver parenchyma (Low power view). (d) Retroperitoneal FNA: Cell block with H and E stain showing hyaline deposits of amorphous eosinophilic material (High power view).
What is the diagnosis?
Soft-tissue tumor Solitary fibrous tumor Collagenous spherulosis Amyloid
Answer:
d) Amyloid
The most common diagnosis of retroperitoneal masses is a soft-tissue tumor such as a liposarcoma. Other common entities that can lead to retroperitoneal mass formation are lymphomas. Collagenous nodules as seen in our patient on H and E section can be also seen in some cases of retroperitoneal fibrosis. However, in our patient, the collagenous areas were striking and amorphous and immediately raised the possibility of amyloid deposits. The presence of inflammatory cells and plasma cells also favored the diagnosis of amyloid.
The diagnosis was confirmed by positive Congo staining [
Retroperitoneal fine-needle aspiration: Congo red stain showing brownish red acellular, amorphous deposits.
Retroperitoneal fine-needle aspiration: Congo red stain showing apple green birefringence under polarized light.
Amyloidosis is a disease that occurs from the deposition of mis-folded proteins in organs and tissues. Amyloid refers to a group of abnormal proteins that share a ß-pleated sheet structure.[
There are different types of amyloid deposits, but AL (A = amyloid, L = light chain) is the most common and is usually seen to affect older men. In AL amyloidosis, plasma cells produce unstable quantities of monoclonal free light chains.[
Which new specific and sensitive test can confirm the presence of amyloid and also specify the type (AA, AL [Kappa or Lambda], and transthyretin/hereditary type)?
Congo red staining Immunohistochemistry Liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry Electron microscopy
Answer(s):
c) Liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry
AL amyloidosis is typically diagnosed by staining the sample with Congo red and observing for apple-green birefringence. Immunohistochemistry is not useful as it often results in non-specific staining and the sensitivity of the technique is low. Using this process, diagnosis of the specific kind of amyloidosis and determining if it is systemic or localized is difficult. However, technological advancements in mass spectrometry have made it more efficient for diagnosing amyloidosis. Mass spectrometry can analyze specific proteins allowing for a diagnosis of not only amyloidosis but also the type of amyloidosis, giving more options of treatment to the patient. Findings from mass spectrometry can also provide a general diagnosis independent of the application of Congo red staining.[
What are the symptoms of AL amyloidosis?
Shortness of breath Chronic kidney disease Constipation Arrhythmia All of the above
Answer(s):
d. All of the above
AL amyloidosis is generally found in older men. General symptoms of AL amyloidosis include abnormal bleeding, dizziness, fatigue, shortness of breath, and muscle weakness.[
What treatments are implicated on a patient with AL amyloidosis?
Chemotherapy No treatment Bone marrow transplant Removal of the mass All of the above
Answer(s):
e). All of the above
There is no known cure for systemic AL amyloidosis. Chemotherapy, like that used in cancer patients, is typically prescribed to slow down the build-up of amyloid proteins by killing cells that produce them.[
What is the latest method of confirming a clinical diagnosis of amyloidosis?
Blood test Fat pad biopsy with Congo red staining and electron microscopy Anterior fat pad FNA biopsies with mass spectrometry/ proteomics Rectal biopsies
Answer:
c). Anterior fat pad FNA biopsies with mass spectrometry/ proteomics
Earlier, abdominal fat biopsies for confirming amyloidosis relied on electron microscopy and Congo red staining.[
AL amyloidosis is a rare condition typically found in older male patients. Initial diagnosis of AL amyloidosis usually involves Congo red staining, looking for apple-green birefringence. Mass spectrometry recognizes all amyloid types (AL vs. AA vs. transthyretin/hereditary) and can easily be performed on formalin fixed, paraffin embedded tissue from core biopsies, and cell blocks. It confirms the diagnosis, identifies specific mutations, and helps guide appropriate treatment.
References
Cytomorphology of a brain lesion and its pitfall
A 25-year-old man presented with complaints of giddiness and severe headache for 20 days. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a solid mass lesion of size 56 × 57 mm in the left frontal lobe. Intraoperative tumor cavity fluid (2 mL, clear) was aspirated and sent for cytological examination. Cytocentrifuge smears prepared were cellular [
(a-c) (GIEMSA ×40) Smears showing tumor cells in clusters and singly scattered having high N:C ratio and opened up chromatin and pleomorphism. (a) Inset shows atypical mitoses pointed by solid arrow.
Degenerated cells Adenocarcinoma Glioma Small blue round cell tumor.
The correct cytopathological interpretation is d. Small blue round cell tumor.
Cytocentrifuge smears prepared were cellular comprising of monomorphic tumor cells arranged in clusters and nests. Individual tumor cells are round to ovoid having scant to moderate amount of delicate cytoplasm. Nuclei were regular, smooth with opened up chromatin, showing mild-to-moderate degree of pleomorphism [
The cells were cohesive with no acini formation, delicate chromatin and no nucleoli thereby ruling out adenocarcinoma (Option b).
No glial matrix or fibrillary processes or rosenthal fibres or vessels or calcification or cellular pleomorphism or endothelial cell proliferation were displayed hence possibility of glioma was also excluded from the study (Option c).
Degenerated cells (Option a) were seen but most of the cells were preserved and had distinct cell boundary with nuclear margins and cellular details as discussed briefly above. Based on findings described above, a provisional diagnosis of small blue round blue cell tumor was considered. Cell block and immunocytochemistry could not be performed due to exhaustion of fluid while making smears for routine examination.
Excision surgery was performed and histopathological examination revealed a tumor [
(a) Tumor cells arranged in nest, chords and trabeculae (H & E ×10); (b) Tumor cells having round nucleus and powdery chromatin (H & E ×40).
All of the following are among the differentials except
Germ cell tumor Astrocytoma Melanoma Neuroendocrine tumor.
Histopathological examination revealed tumor cells arranged in nests, chords and trabeculae showing moderate degree of pleomorphism. Cells were round to oval with stippled nuclear chromatin [
Astrocytoma (option b) will show tumor cells having irregular nuclei with variable degree of atypia along with presence of glial processes. Cells can have variable cellular morphology in a fibrillary background which is not seen in this case.
Initial panel of immunohistochemistry (IHC) was applied which included Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP), LCA, SALL4, CK7, CK20, CD117, desmin, myogenin, CD99, HMB 45, and S-100. All above markers came out to be negative except focal pan-cytokeratin positivity [
Immunohistochemistry: Strong positive synaptophysin (a), Positive Chromogranin (b), Pancytokeratin focal positive (c), and Glial fibrillary acidic protein negative (d), Ki67 >20% (e) (×40).
Which marker helped in excluding the primary nature of the lesion?
Synaptophysin Chromogranin Pan-cytokeratin GFAP.
GFAP is positive in intermediate filament of astrocytes. In the present case, it was negative in the tumor cells.
Synaptophysin and chromogranin are markers for neuroendocrine cells whereas pancytokeratin indicates the epithelial nature of the lesion.
All further IHCs can be put to check for the metastatic site of NEN except
Insulinoma associated protein 1 (INSM-1) CDX2- Caudal type homeobox2 (CDX2) Thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF-1) Pancreatic battery (Insulin, gastrin, somatostatin, glucagon, etc.).
Insulinoma associated protein 1 (INSM-1) is a nuclear marker of neuroendocrine differentiation with better sensitivity and specificity as compared to synaptophysin, chromogranin, and CD56.
CDX2 helps in location metastasis from colon whereas TTF-1 from lung.
On extended IHC, the cells were focally positive for TTF-1 [
Tumor cells are positive for TTF-1 (×40).
A Positron emission tomography/Computed tomography (PET/CT) was performed which showed metabolically active soft tissue density lesion measuring 2.5 × 1.7 × 2.5 cm in the upper lobe of left lung in the para mediastinal aspect with metabolic activity in the mediastinal lymph nodes. The above PET/CT findings further confirmed the histopathological diagnosis of tumor arising in lung.
NEN can develop at any of the initial mentioned systems where the neuroendocrine cells are present.[
Cytological features of neuroendocrine tumors are described in literature that includes monomorphic population of cells, loosely cohesive fragments, medium in size having abundant cytoplasm, and very few mitotic figures. Occasional rosette formation can be seen. Nuclei were regular, smooth with opened up chromatin, showing mild-to-moderate degree of pleomorphism [
In the present case, diagnosis of metastatic neuroendocrine tumor Grade 3 was made. TTF-1 positivity pointed out the brain tumor was metastatic, which was later confirmed by PETCT that exhibited a primary lesion in the lung. The grading of neuroendocrine tumors (NET) is based on Ki67 proliferation index. However, in neuroendocrine carcinomas, also it is advised for distinguishing it from Grade 3 NETs.[
Metastatic disease is a major prognostic factor in NEN s in addition to differentiation and proliferation rate. Brain metastasis of neuroendocrine carcinoma is a rare entity but the possibility of it should be borne in mind for accurate diagnosis. In the present study, patient has been on regular follow-up for 9 months and is living disease free while continuing on etoposide chemotherapy.
References
A rare and challenging case of uterine mass successfully reported in a cervical smear
A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman, gravida 7 and para 5 from a rural hospital, presented with the lower abdominal pain associated with dysuria. A contrast-enhanced computed tomography was done, which showed a mass occupying the uterus and part of the mass is protruding into the upper vagina. A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear test was performed. The images are shown in [
(a) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan axial image at the region of the pelvis showed a large heterogeneous enhancing mass occupying the uterus and protruding into the upper vagina (arrows). (b) Cytological cervical smears examination showed tissue fragments of round to oval hyperchromatic nuclei with scant cytoplasm in necrotic debris background (Pap, ×10). (c) Cells with abundant granular to glassy cytoplasm and nuclei with coarse irregularly distributed chromatin and macroprominent nucleoli (Pap, ×40). (d) Large bizarre cells with strap-like, rhabdoid morphology (Pap, ×20).
Q1. What is your diagnosis for the above findings?
Squamous cell carcinoma. Endocervical adenocarcinoma Carcinosarcoma Neuroendocrine carcinoma.
Uterine carcinosarcoma, also known as malignant mixed Mullerian tumor (MMMT), is a rare and aggressive form of corpus uteri tumor. The tumor is composed of two cellular components: Epithelial and mesenchymal. The cervical smear findings showed both cellular components which raised the suspicion of carcinosarcoma. Endocervical adenocarcinoma can be a differential; however, the presence of large rhabdoid cells and tissue fragments of round to oval hyperchromatic nuclei with scant cytoplasm cells excluded adenocarcinoma. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) was excluded since the spindle cells that are present in this case look different from pleomorphic cells such as “tadpole” and “fiber” cells that are seen particularly in keratinizing type of SCC. Also, the lack of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion which did not favor the diagnosis of SCC. Hence altogether, the final report concluded that carcinosarcoma is the most likely correct diagnosis.
The patient underwent total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and right and left lymph node. Gross examination of the resected specimen demonstrated a completely occupied endometrial cavity by a large polypoid soft tan mass. Furthermore, the mass extended through the cervix and protruded from the external cervical OS [
(a) Gross examination of the total hysterectomy specimen showed a completely occupied endometrial cavity by a large polypoid soft tan mass attached to fundus, anterior and posterior wall and also extends through the cervix. (b) Histological sections of resected uterus showed sarcomatous area (H&E, ×4), (c) serous carcinoma (H&E, ×10), and (d) rhabdomyosarcomatous morphology (H&E, ×10).
Q2. What are the following immunohistochemistry markers will be positive to confirm the diagnosis of carcinosarcoma?
CD56, desmin, α-smooth muscle actin (SMA), MyoD-1, AE1/AE3, and tumor protein 53 (P53) Synaptophysin, chromogranin, and AE1/AE3 CEA, vimentin, and ER P16, CK5/6, and P63
The answer is (a).
Immunohistochemical markers on sarcomatous components were positive for cluster of differentiation 56, and desmin and focal positivity for α-SMA and MyoD-1 [
Immunohistochemical analysis of uterine carcinosarcoma. (a) The sarcomatous component showed positive for CD56 (×20), (b) Desmin (×10), and (c) partially positive α-Smooth Muscle Actin (α-SMA) muscle actin (×20), and (d) MyoD-1 (×40). (e) The carcinomatous component stained positive for P53 (×10).
Q3. All of following are heterologous component of carcinosarcoma, except for?
Osteosarcomatous Liposarcomatous Angiosarcomatous Leiomyosarcoma
The answer is (d).
MMMT, also known as carcinosarcoma, is a rare and aggressive form of corpus uteri tumor. The tumor is composed of two cellular components: Epithelial and mesenchymal which commonly arise from the endometrial cavity.[
Our cytological features overlapped with previously described reports,[
Uterine carcinosarcoma is a malignancy of two components; epithelial (carcino-) and mesenchymal (-sarcoma), and it can be classified as homologous or heterologous types. The homologous type involves a sarcomatous component of intrauterus such as fibrosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma, whereas heterologous component involves cells of extrauterine connective tissues such as rhabdomyosarcoma and chondrosarcoma.[
This case was challenging since the Pap smear request was received from a peripheral hospital with limited clinical and radiological details. Furthermore, this tumor commonly occurs in postmenopausal women, with one of the most frequent clinical manifestations being postmenopausal bleeding. However, in this case, the patient presented with the lower abdominal pain and dysuria. Nevertheless, the presence of all the classic cytological features of carcinosarcoma enabled a successful diagnosis of this rare tumor in a Pap smear.
Carcinosarcoma of the uterine wall may extend to cervix and present in cytological cervical (Pap) smears. Awareness of the possibility facilitates an optimal diagnosis and appropriate management.
References
Unusual case of parietal scalp swelling without palpable swelling in head and neck region
A 73-year-old woman presented with the swelling in the left parietal region of the scalp, measuring 3 × 3 cm, which was cystic in consistency, and the overlying skin was normal without any palpable swelling in head and neck region. Clinical picture, contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT), and cytomorphology of fine-needle aspirate are shown in
(a) Swelling over the left parietal scalp region; (b) contrast-enhanced computed tomography brain shows destructive mildly enhancing bony mass lesion; (c) aspirate from scalp swelling showing round cells with moderate amount of cytoplasm in sheets and groups with mild nuclear atypia (× 400, Papanicolaou stain); and (d) round cells arranged in small groups and clusters with central nuclei and moderate amount of granular cytoplasm (×400, May–Grunwald– Giemsa stain).
What is your most probable diagnosis?
Metastatic renal cell carcinoma Primary adnexal tumor of skin with apocrine differentiation Granular cell tumor Metastatic Hurthle cell carcinoma
d. Metastatic Hurthle cell carcinoma.
The scalp swelling was [
(a) May–Grunwald–Giemsa stained smear from scalp swelling showing the cohesive sheet of round cells with large central nuclei and moderate granular cytoplasm. Occasional binucleation also noted (×400) and (b) Papanicolaou stained smear showing round cells with moderate amount of granular cytoplasm in sheet with well-defined cell border (×400).
(a and b) Aspirate from thyroid showing the sheet of Hurthle cells with moderate amount of granular cytoplasm in sheet with well-defined cell border with central round nucleus and occasional binucleation (×400).
Who gave the description of Hurthle cells?
Max Askanazy Karl Hurthle James Ewing
a. Max Askanazy.
HCC is a rare differentiated thyroid carcinoma of follicular origin, and it accounts for approximately 3–7% of all thyroid carcinomas.[
In the recent, the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of Tumors of Endocrine Organs published in 2017, how the HCC is classified?
Variant of follicular carcinoma Separate entity
HCC has traditionally been classified as a variant of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid, but it was reclassified as a separate entity under the differentiated thyroid carcinomas in the 4th WHO classification of Tumors of Endocrine Organs in 2017, because it has a distinct clinical presentation, pathological features, and genetic profile.[
Hurthle cells are also known as oncocytic/oxyphilic/ eosinophilic cells. Hurthle cell change is observed in a variety of thyroid entities ranging from benign to malignant (including lymphocytic/Hashimoto thyroiditis, nodular goiter, long-standing chronic hyperthyroidism, Hurthle cell adenoma, and HCC), and it is not specific to any single entity.[
As discussed in the present case, HCC can present as an isolated metastatic disease without palpable thyroid swelling. In such cases, cytomorphological features can point toward a possible primary in the thyroid and lead to an accurate and timely diagnosis. The case also highlights the importance of cytology, radiology, as well as clinical features to arrive at a definitive diagnosis and appropriate treatment in such rare cases.
References
Prominent emperipolesis in breast lesion: A diagnostic challenge
A middle-aged woman presented with a lump in her left breast for 8 months. She complained of multiple episodes of intense itching in the lesion along with pus discharge in the past 8 months. May-Grunwald-Giemsa and Papanicolaou stained smears are shown in [
(a) Epithelioid cell granuloma with scattered neutrophils (Papanicolaou ×400), (b) Emperipolesis of neutrophils by histiocyte (lower half) and epithelioid cell granuloma (Papanicolaou ×1000), (c) Giant cell, scattered neutrophils, and histiocytes in the background (MGG ×100), (d) Giant cell and histiocytes (MGG ×400).
Q1. What is the probable diagnosis?
Tuberculosis Rosai-Dorfman disease Idiopathic granulomatous mastitis (IGM) Sarcoidosis
Answer: C.
Idiopathic granulomatous mastitis (IGM)
Cytological diagnosis of granulomatous mastitis is challenging. Differential diagnoses include tuberculosis, fungal infections, sarcoidosis, and histiocytic disorders including Rosai-Dorfman disease. Cytological features of granulomatous mastitis include the presence of epithelioid cell granulomas, multinucleated giant cells, histiocytes with phagocytosed neutrophils, and numerous neutrophils.
Q2. Which type of cell is phagocytosed by histiocytes in IGM?
Lymphocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils All of the above
Answer: D. Studies have shown that the presence of neutrophils is an important diagnostic clue in diagnosing granulomatous mastitis, as in the present case, where histocytes showing emperipolesis of neutrophils along with the presence of numerous neutrophils in the background led to the diagnosis in this case. In contrast, Rosai-Dorfman disease shows emperipolesis of lymphocytes. However, in some cases of IGM, lymphocytes and eosinophils have also been seen in the smear or biopsy.
Q3. Based on various studies, which bacteria is associated with IGM?
All of the above
Answer: D. There are many studies which have identified
Q4. What is the treatment modality for IGM?
Steroid Immunosuppressive therapy Surgical excision All of the above
Answer: D. Patients of IGM have good prognosis with steroids, antibiotics, and immunosuppressive therapy. In some refractory cases, where medical management failed, surgical excision is offered.
Granulomatous mastitis is a rare benign inflammatory entity described by Kessler and Wolloch in 1972.[
Various risk factors were studied, but none were specifically related to granulomatous mastitis. Possible etiological factors include an inflammatory response to epithelial damage,
We discussed a case of granulomatous mastitis presenting in a middle-aged non-lactating woman with no previous history of psychiatric medications, contraceptive pills, or trauma who presented with a nodular lesion. The cytologic diagnosis is based on finding histiocytes with neutrophils, giant cells, and epithelioid cell granulomas with or without necrosis and excluding other common differential diagnoses such as tuberculosis and fungal infections. As far as IGM is concerned, there is no standard management approach. Therefore, treatment strategies should be tailored to the needs of each patient based on the culture report and response to initial medical management which avoids aggressive management.
References
Pancreatic head mass: To Whipple or not to Whipple
The patient was a 57-year-old female with a 3.8 cm, solid, lobulated, and ill-defined pancreatic head lesion suspected to represent a primary pancreatic malignancy. An endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) was performed and EUS-guided fine needle aspiration (FNA) of the pancreatic mass was obtained with rapid on-site evaluation (ROSE). The direct smears showed the following [
(a) and (b) Fragments of fibrous tissue with dense mononuclear cell infiltrate (Papanicolaou stain, ×20 and ×100, respectively). (c) and (d) Dispersed background lymphomononuclear cells and high-power view of plasma cells. Lymphocytic counts of 27/60X field were identified. Plasma cells were less numerous (8/60X field). (Papanicolaou, ×20 and ×100, respectively). (e) and (f) Ductal epithelium with slight nuclear enlargement and disorganization, consistent with mild atypia (Papanicolaou, ×40 and DiffQuik, ×40, respectively).
What is your interpretation?
Negative for malignancy; mucinous cyst debris of uncertain etiology Positive (for malignancy); malignant glandular and squamous cells consistent with adenosquamous carcinoma Suspicious (for malignancy); rare markedly atypical epithelial cells suspicious for adenocarcinoma accompanied by fragments of desmoplastic stroma Atypical; cellular stromal elements with mononuclear cells and mild ductal epithelial atypia.
The correct cytologic interpretation is: D. Atypical; cellular stromal elements with mononuclear cells and mild ductal epithelial atypia.
The FNA showed numerous fragments of fibrous tissue with a dense lymphomononuclear cell infiltrate present both within the stromal fragments and in the background. Lymphocytic counts of 27/60X field were identified. Plasma cells were less numerous (8/60X field). Immunocytochemical staining for immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) performed on air-dried smears was non-contributory. Groups of ductal epithelium with mild nuclear atypia were noted. Material was not available for cell block. The case was signed out as, “Atypical; mild ductal epithelial atypia and chronic fibroinflammatory changes.”
The patient denied alcohol consumption but had a remote history of tobacco use. Prior to detection of the lesion, she had visited the emergency room on two occasions over a 3-month period due to epigastric pain accompanied by weight loss and anorexia. She eventually underwent cephalic duodenopancreatectomy. Macroscopic examination of the specimen revealed an ill-defined, tan, 4 cm lesion within the pancreatic head. Histologic sections of the lesion [
(a) Dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate with marked perineural accentuation (H&E, ×4). (b) Obliterative arteritis with recanalization and transmural lymphoplasmacytic inflammatory infiltrate (H&E, ×20). (c) Fibrosis exhibiting a storiform-pattern (H&E, ×20). (d) Numerous immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4)-positive plasma cells (IgG4 immunohistochemistry, ×40).
The patient’s serum IgG4 level preoperatively was 85 mg/dL and postoperatively rose to 122 mg/dL. Both values were insufficient to meet the serological diagnostic criterion of 136 mg/dL for IgG4-related disease.[
It is important to be aware of mass-forming inflammatory lesions of the pancreas such as AIP which may clinically and radiologically simulate pancreatic malignancy sometimes leading to unnecessary surgical resection. Although EUS guided FNA (EUS-FNA) is often a useful adjunct in the diagnosis of pancreatic lesions, allowing for correct classification of many cases, the preoperative diagnosis of AIP based on EUS-FNA is challenging, and no widely accepted cytologic criteria have been reported.[
Furthermore, benign features suggestive of AIP do not rule out false negative results induced by sampling error.[
Q2. All of the following are suggestive of Type 1 AIP over Type 2 AIP, EXCEPT:
Systemic disease Frequent relapses Swift response to immunosuppression Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
Q3. All are pathological characteristics of Type 1 AIP, EXCEPT:
Lymphoplasmacytic inflammation with storiform fibrosis Preferential involvement of pancreatic tail IgG4+/IgG+ plasma cell ratio of >40% Obliterative phlebitis.
Q4. Which of the following is true regarding the cytomorphologic findings of Type 1 AIP:
Fragments of cellular fibrous stroma are common Ductal epithelial atypia precludes diagnosis of AIP Cytologic findings are highly specific and alone are sufficient for a definitive diagnosis On FNA, AIP is indistinguishable from chronic pancreatitis, NOS.
Q2. (d); Q3. (b); Q4. (a).
Q2. (d) AIP is a pancreatobiliary-centric inflammatory disease, typically marked by corticosteroid responsiveness and classified in two groups. Type 1 AIP often affects elderly males, associates extrapancreatic manifestations of systemic IgG4-related disease (including cholangitis, sialadenitis, retroperitoneal fibrosis, or lymphadenopathy), shows frequent relapses and elevation of serum IgG4 in approximately 80% of cases.[
Q3. (b) AIP most often involves the head of the pancreas.[
Q4. (a) EUS-FNA alone is widely considered to be insufficient to make a definitive diagnosis of AIP, probably at least partially due to a lack of architectural integrity.[
Awareness of AIP’s potential to clinically and radiologically simulate pancreatic malignancy is important to avoid unnecessary surgery.
Although AIP on FNA lacks specific cytomorphologic features, cellular stromal fragments, mild ductal epithelial atypia and prominent lymphocytic infiltrate are common findings and may support the diagnosis in the proper context.
Corticosteroid responsiveness and elevated serum IgG4 are useful clues which, in conjunction with suggestive cytomorphology, may reduce gratuitous duodenopancreatectomy.
References
Inguinal swelling in a young female: An unusual finding
A 21-year-old female presented with gradually increasing swelling over right inguinal region for the past 1 month. She denied any history of leg trauma, pain, or fever. On physical examination, a firm, non-tender nodular mass lesion measuring 1 × 0.5 × 0.5 cm was palpable over the right inguinal region. No other lymphadenopathy or nodular swelling was found elsewhere in the body. Fine needle aspiration was performed from the lesion, after informed consent of the patient and smears were prepared [
Microphotograph panel of smears from the right inguinal swelling are cellular and show (a) large fragments of bladder wall and (b and c) granular fibrillary sheath-like material in a background of histiocytes, scattered eosinophils, neutrophils. (d and e) rounded bladder wall fragments tiny dense pyknotic nuclei. (f) scattered multinucleated giant cell. (a: ×4, b-d: ×10, e and f: ×40) (H&E).
1. What is the interpretation based on the clinical history and findings of fine needle aspiration?
Hydatidosis Cysticercosis Spargana Filariasis.
The correct cytological interpretation is b. Cysticercosis.
Aspirate was fluidy in this case and the smears showed large fragments of bladder wall identified as fibrillary bluish material woven into rounded multiple subcuticular cells with interspersed tiny blue pyknotic nuclei surrounded by dense inflammatory infiltrate. The background showed sheets of histiocytes, scattered eosinophils, neutrophils, and few multinucleated giant cells [
Microphotograph panel of smears (a and b) showing large fragments of bladder wall in a background of dense inflammatory infiltrate (c and d) fibrillary bluish material woven into rounded multiple subcuticular cells with interspersed tiny blue pyknotic nuclei surrounded by dense inflammatory infiltrate. (a-c: ×10, d: ×40) (MGG).
The most common cytologic mimic of cysticercosis is other cestodes including hydatid cyst (
Filariasis (Option D) is another vector borne disease and shows microfilariae. Most common causative agents of human filariasis include
Feco-oral contamination Droplet transmission Inhalation Sexual contact.
Cysticercosis is caused by larval stage of Humans cannot be both definitive and intermediate hosts Inflammatory response is usually associated with cysticercosis Viable cysticerci can persist for several months to years in humans.
Answers: Q2-a, Q3-b.
The life-cycle of
A myriad of parasitic infections continue to pose health issues in tropical climates. In endemic countries, like India, cysticercosis is a common infection. The WHO experts in 2014, ranked
Most subcutaneous cysticerci present as painless nodular or cystic swellings, that are easily amenable to fine needle aspiration. A definitive diagnosis of cysticercosis can be established by cytological examination and identification of the variable morphology in viable and degenerating/ calcified lesions. Microscopically, viable cysts demonstrates fragments of the bladder wall of the larva identified as loose granular fibrillary material, often thrown into rounded wavy folds with small round dark subcuticular or tegumental cells with small pyknotic nuclei, refractile claw shaped hooklets, and scolices, while degenerating lesions can demonstrate scattered hooklets and calcareous corpuscles.[
Cysticercus cellulosae can regulate T-Cell response and interacts with the host immune system by excreting and secreting antigens, thereby escaping the host immune attacks and establish a persistent infection.[
Serological tests and radiological investigations such as computed tomography scan and magnetic resonance imaging are also sensitive for diagnosing cysticercosis. Lentil lectin glycoprotein enzyme linked immunoelectrotransfer blot assay is the assay of choice for serodiagnosis.[
Cysticercosis is an infection caused due to larval stage of the parasite
References
Cervical lymphadenopathy with dual pathology: Interesting finding
A 48-year-old male presented with a rapidly enlarging painless firm to hard, mobile, and non-tender lymph node approximately 2 cm deep in the left level II cervical region. Fine needle aspiration of the lymph node was performed (
(a) Cellular smear showing discrete population of round to polygonal cells with pyknotic nuclei and dense cytoplasm with smoothly curved filarial worm covered with a hyaline sheath and a pointed tail. (b) Higher magnification showing worm along with tumour cells with squamoid differentiation. (c) Cellular smear showing discrete population of tumor cells having squamoid appearance and of transverse section of gravid female worm with numerous ovoid eggs. (d) Higher magnification of smoothly curved worm covered with a hyaline sheath and a pointed tail, devoid of nuclei. (a) MGG ×10, (b) MGG ×40, (c) H&E ×10, (d) H&E ×40.
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma with microfilaria of Metastatic adenocarcinoma with microfilaria of Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma with microfilaria of Metastatic adenocarcinoma with microfilaria of
Answer: a. Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma with microfilaria of
The cytological findings are consistent with metastatic squamous cell carcinoma with accompanying microfilaria in a necro-haemorrhagic background. The filarial worm is smoothly curved, covered with a hyaline sheath and a pointed tail. The body has multiple discrete evenly spaced nuclei with no terminal nuclei in the tail. The microfilaria is identified as Wuchereria bancrofti owing to characteristic smoothly curved worm with pointed tail, devoid of nuclei (
Table 1 elaborates the key differentiating features of commonly occurring sheathed filarial nematodes.
Key differentiating features of commonly occurring sheathed filarial nematodes.
Nematode | |||
---|---|---|---|
Length | 244–296 µ | 177–230 µ | 231–250 µ |
Cephalic space | Short | Long | Short |
Tail | Pointed tail, devoid of nuclei | Two distinct nuclei on tail tip | Continuous discrete row of nuclei at the tail tip |
Periodicity | Nocturnal | Nocturnal | Diurnal |
Q2. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of
Pointed tail, devoid of nuclei Two distinct nuclei on tail tip Cephalic space is short Length of microfilaria ranges from 244 to 296 µ.
Answer: b
Q3. What could be the possible reason for lodgement of filaria in the metastatic sites?
Increased vascularity of the tissues Transmigration of microfilaria along with metastatic tumor emboli Decreased host immune response All of the above.
Answer: d
Filariasis is a vector borne public health issue and is endemic all over India. In India,
Few authors have speculated that increased vascularity of the tissues and transmigration of microfilaria along with metastatic tumor emboli, decreased host immune response could be a possible reasons for lodgement of filarial in the metastatic sites.[
This case highlights the importance of diligent screening of all cytology smears in endemic regions as the occurrence of microfilaria in cervical nodes of patients with oral cavity malignancy requiring neck dissection can have different implications in post-operative healing.
References
Granulomas on cervical Pap smear: “Forget me not”
A 62-year-old female presented with the complaints of heaviness in the lower abdomen for 1 year. She was post-menopausal from the past 15 years. No prior history of fever or cough was present. On gynecological examination, her uterus was anteverted and cervix showed mild erosion. Routine Papanicolaou test was done and stained smears showed features as shown in
(a and b) Smears show well-formed collection of epithelioid cells forming granulomas (red arrow). The adjacent area shows parabasal cells and inflammation comprising of neutrophils and lymphocytes. (×100, Papanicolaou [PAP] stain); (c) Smear shows a multinucleated giant cell (red arrow) (×100, PAP stain); (d) Smear shows a beaded rod-shaped acid-fast bacillus (red arrow) (×1000 oil immersion, Ziehl Neelson stain).
1. What is your probable diagnosis?
Sarcoidosis Granuloma Inguinale Tuberculosis Syphilis.
Answer to Question 1: (c)
The granulomas [
Tuberculous bacilli are seen as a pink rod shaped slender bacilli on ZN stain [
2. What is the mode of spread for cervical tuberculosis?
Hematogenous spread Lymphatic spread Primary infection All of the above.
Answer to Question 2: (d)
Cervical tuberculosis (TB) can spread by any route – Hematogenous spread, lymphatic spread, or direct extension from the primary focus in the body. Rarely, primary route can be the cause of infection introduced by the male partner suffering from TB of genitourinary tract.
3. Which stain is used for the confirmation of TB infection?
Periodic Acid Schiff stain Ziehl Neelson stain – 20% Ziehl Neelson stain – 05% Ziehl Neelson stain – 01%.
Answer to Question 3: (b)
The concentration of sulfuric acid varies in the ZN stain. About 20% of acid is used for
TB is a significant cause of high morbidity and mortality and is more common in developing countries. TB of the female genital tract is a rare disease and more commonly involves the upper genital tract (fallopian tubes and endometrium) as compared to lower genital tract.[
Genital TB is a chronic disease in females with low-grade symptoms. It commonly involves fallopian tubes and endometrium. Cervix is an uncommon location for genitourinary TB. The gross appearance and imaging studies of cervical TB may mislead as cervical carcinoma. Therefore, microscopic examination and positive ZN stain and culture are diagnostic. TB may lead to fibrosis and adhesion and is a major cause of infertility among females. Therefore, screening for genital TB must be a part while evaluating for the menstrual irregularities or infertility. Early diagnosis and further treatment are the key to avoid the complications associated with TB.
References
Duct tales of a parotid gland swelling
An Indian male in his mid-30s complaining of a progressively enlarging right parotid swelling for the past 5 years, with a history of exposure to tuberculosis from a close contact. The ultrasound (USG) report suggests a retention cyst, measuring 5.2 × 4.4 × 2 cm. Direct fine-needle aspiration (FNA) yielded 1 mL of thick, yellowish, turbid fluid, and swelling was reduced slightly after aspiration [
(a and b) Direct FNA smears show cells in papillaroid architecture in an abundant proteinaceous background (MGG, a: ×400, b: ×1000). (c) Large cohesive sheet of benign looking cells, showing oncocytic changes and minimal nuclear irregularity (MGG, ×4000).
What is the most likely interpretation of FNA using the Milan system? [
Non-neoplastic Atypia of undetermined significance Neoplasm: Benign Neoplasm: Salivary gland neoplasm of uncertain malignant potential (SUMP) Malignant.
c. Neoplasm: Benign.
FNA smears were cellular and showed benign-looking epithelial cells arranged in large cohesive sheets, clusters, and groups. They exhibit mild degenerative nuclear changes and abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Background showed abundant eosinophilic proteinaceous material along with a few neutrophils, lymphocytes, macrophages, and debris. There was no evidence of mitosis, necrosis, or atypia in the smears examined. To interpret and report the case, “
On inquiry, the patient showed a previous (3 months prior) USG report and fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC), which were done outside. The USG report was suggestive of a retention cyst and the FNAC was consistent with the radiological findings of a “
An excisional biopsy was performed after 12 days of FNAC. On the basis of gross and microscopic findings, what is the diagnosis? [
Cystadenoma Sclerosing polycystic adenosis Acinic cell carcinoma (papillary cystic pattern) Mammary analog secretory carcinoma Low-grade intraductal carcinoma.
(a) Gross specimen of superficial parotidectectomy show solid cystic cut surface. (b) Cystically dilated ducts with tufted, micropapillary anastomosing proliferations of epithelial ductal cells; tumor area with normal serous salivary gland (H&E, ×200). (c and d) Intraductal proliferations with Roman Bridges and “pseudocribriform” papillary architecture of tumor cells, displaying mild to moderate pleomorphism (H&E, c: ×1000, d: ×4000).
e. Low-grade intraductal carcinoma.
There was no evidence of necrosis grossly. Multiple H&E stained sections examined under the microscope showed a salivary gland neoplasm consisting of solid and cystic areas. Cysts showed intracystic and intraductal proliferation of neoplastic epithelial cells arranged in papillary, micropapillary, and “pseudocribriform” architecture, displaying false punched out spaces and “Roman bridge” formation. The cysts cavities were filled with proteinaceous secretions. Tumor cells exhibit mild-to-moderate pleomorphism, vesicular chromatin, inconspicuous 1–2 nucleoli, and a moderate to abundant amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. At places, a few cells showed apocrine changes. Myoepithelial cells were noted. Adjoining stroma showed areas of hemorrhage and lymphoid cell proliferation, well demarcated from normal salivary gland acini. Tiny foci of necrosis were identified; however, an invasion was not seen. Mitosis was exceedingly rare. No lymphovascular or perineural invasion was noted. Surgical margins were free of tumor cells. Four intraparotid lymph nodes identified microscopically showed features of reactive lymphoid hyperplasia.
To conclude the diagnosis, whole tissue was processed to screen for invasion, which was not identified on the total of 19 sections passed. Thereafter, a diagnosis of “Low-grade-Intraductal Carcinoma” was awarded. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) was performed by application of S100, which came out negative for tumor cells.
The post-operative course of the patient was fair, and facial nerve palsy was not noted. No swelling recurs at the surgical site or in the nearby regional area on physical examination or radiological investigation, stating that,
What is/are the diagnostic feature of low-grade intraductal carcinoma?
“Pseudocribriform” architecture displaying false punched-out spaces and “Roman bridge” formation without invasion Intracystic and intraductal proliferation of neoplastic epithelial cells arranged in a papillary and micropapillary pattern with invasion Absence of S100 IHC positivity Lymphovascular or perineural invasion Absence of myoepithelial cells and presence of rare mitosis.
a. “Pseudocribriform” architecture displaying false punched-out spaces and “Roman bridge” formation without invasion.
What are the major pitfalls observed in the cytohistomorphological correlation of this case?
Gross aspiration of thick yellow fluid, followed by slight reduction of size of the swelling USG findings suggestive of retention cyst Long-standing history of 5 years Murky fluid in background and no evidence of atypia/malignancy noted All of the above.
e. All of the above.
This case was mislabeled as a retention cyst on USG and was unrecognized and under-diagnosed on FNAC done outside in a private laboratory despite being an extremely rare entity. On both occasions, FNA procedures done outside as well as in our department yielded similar fluidy aspirates [
The clues or features favoring on FNAC performed in our laboratory are as follows.
Neoplastic etiology | Benign in nature/against malignant etiology |
---|---|
1. High cellularity | 1. Fluid aspiration on two attempts |
2. Swelling size | 2. Size mildly reduced after aspiration |
3. Progressive | 3. Cohesive cell arrangement |
4. Fixed and firm in consistency | 4. No definite atypia |
5. Non-tender, no signs of inflammation | 5. No mitosis |
6. No necrosis | |
7. Murky fluid or proteinaceous background | |
8. No hemorrhage | |
9. Ultrasound report |
FNAC: Fine-needle aspiration cytology
Although making a definite diagnosis of this tumor on FNA smears is challenging, at least can be suggested as salivary gland neoplasm. The Category IV A, B, and C of Milan’s system is highly overlapping. The presence of above-mentioned cytomorphological findings is of a salivary gland multicystic neoplasm; however, exact diagnosis is almost impossible. However, raising the diagnostic possibility of salivary gland neoplasm rather than just a cyst in a pre-operative FNA would be of great help to the surgeon so that the complete resection was planned. The distinguished nomenclature relies solely on histopathological examination of stromal invasion that cannot be evaluated on pure cytological grounds.
Warthin’s tumor was one of the differential diagnoses considered due to the classical background (consisting of few lymphocytes) and cystic nature of the tumor, as well as the few oncocytic looking cells; however, the florid lymphoid background was absent in our case. The lymphocytic background is sometimes very misleading, as in the present case, as hitting an intrasalivary gland lymph node gives a similar picture on a smear, even when associated with oncocytic looking cells.
What are the most obvious biopsy findings describing the present case’s prognosis?
Cystic areas Mild atypia Absence of necrosis Negative surgical margins and absence of stromal invasion All of the above.
d. Negative surgical margins and absence of stromal invasion.
Low-grade intraductal carcinoma (LG-IC) is a rare salivary gland malignant tumor.[
In 1996, Delgado
In the majority of cases, LG-ICs are seen in a wider age range of 27–93 years, with a slight female (M: F = 1:1.3) predilection.[ Intercalated duct-like (most common)[ Apocrine[ Mixed/hybrid Possibly oncocytic, but may be a variant of intercalated duct type.[
Complete surgical excision with preservation of the facial nerve is the most commonly practiced management at present. LG-IC has an excellent prognosis after complete excision, with no metastasis or mortality at a follow-up of 2–12 years, regardless of nuclear grade. However, recurrence can occur as a result of incomplete resection, positive surgical margins, or metastasis. The previous systemic reviews illustrate that adjuvant radiotherapy is not justified for tumor resections with negative margins, even in the presence of a close margin. However, it may be advised in cases of positive margins or invasive tumors.[
A systematic review performed by Giovacchini
Nakazawa
Kuo
According to the literature, FNAC has lower sensitivity to cliché the diagnosis of LG-IC as malignant, with only four FNAs out of all cases reported to date showing malignant neoplasms,[
Immunohistochemically, Giovacchini
LG-ICs are unique in their cytohistomorphological complexity. On histomorphology, they have classical non-invasive pseudocribriform and Roman bridges-like architectural patterns, which are similar to the pattern seen in low-grade intraductal breast carcinoma. This specific tumor is considered the counterpart of low-grade intraductal breast carcinoma, which is highly debatable and still not confirmed. On FNAC, the overlapping cytomorphological features make its identification as a malignant tumor more difficult. FNAC plays a pivotal role in detecting both benign and malignant etiologies, the latter in those not suitable for attempted curative surgery or with recurrent disease before palliative treatment, and can also reduce the rate of salivary gland surgery by one-half to one-third. The crux of the case reported is the importance of FNA with good skills to identify neoplastic etiology, especially indolent malignant tumors like LG-IC when cytomorphological features are benign-looking. However, histopathological examination is considered the
References
An extremely rare case of axillary accessory breast swelling with uncommon association of methicillin-resistant
A 34-year-old female presented to the surgery department with persistent nodular left axillary swelling and pain for 15 days. A fine needle aspiration biopsy was performed from the left axilla and image of the smear is depicted below.
Q1. What is the interpretation/diagnosis?
Breast carcinoma Granulomatous mastitis (GM) in accessory axillary breast Fibrocystic change Phyllodes tumor.
b- GM in accessory axillary breast.
Cytological findings showed cellular aspirate with sheets of benign ductal epithelial cells, few non-necrotizing epithelioid cell granulomas, numerous foamy macrophages, neutrophils, and multinucleated giant cells showing emperipolesis [
(a-c) Fine needle aspirate biopsy smear from left axillary swelling stained with papanicolaou and may-grunwald-giemsa stain.
Usually occurs in women of reproductive age, and most cases occur around 2 years after breastfeeding Malignant disease of the breast It is an untreatable condition None.
Phyllodes Mastitis Fibroadenoma
All of the above.
Tuberculous mastitis Sarcoidosis Both Galactocele.
Answers: Q2-a, Q3-d, Q4-c.
GM is an unusual chronic inflammatory condition of the breast that is characterized by breast masses, erythema, abscesses, indurations, and tenderness. It usually occurs in pregnant women within 5 years of giving birth.[
The diagnosis of GM on the accessory axillary breast should be considered in women with pain and swelling along the milk line and having recent history of delivery and breastfeeding. As far as GM is concerned, there is no standard management approach. Therefore, treatment strategies should be tailored to the needs of each patient.
References
Rapid on-site evaluation of a solitary lung nodule in a patient with remote history of hysterectomy: Cytologic findings and diagnostic challenges
A 75-year-old female patient was referred to our institution with chronic upper gastrointestinal symptoms. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and chest revealed a well-demarcated, ovoid nodule in the right, lower lobe of the lung measuring 17 mm. She had a remote history of hysterectomy for endometrial sarcoma 26 years ago. A transbronchial fine needle aspiration biopsy and rapid on-site assessment of smears were performed. The smears were moderately cellular comprising very uniform population of small, round to oval cells with very scant cytoplasm disposed as single cells and occasional clusters associated with occasional metachromatic matrix [
(a) Cytologic smear of lung nodule on rapid on-site assessment (Diff Quik, ×200). (b) Discrete and clusters of cells with pale matrix (Diff Quik, ×400). (c) Papanicolaou stain showing monotonous small round to oval cells ×400. (d) Cell block showing sheets of small cells with hyperchromatic nuclei (H and E ×200).
Q1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Lung hamartoma Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Small cell carcinoma Carcinoid tumor Metastatic low-grade endometrial stromal sarcoma (ESS)
Answer to Q1: Option e
Explanation: The cytologic features of lung hamartoma are characterized by paucicellular smears, prominent chondroid matrix, bronchial epithelial cells, sheets of small round cells, and occasionally fat cells.[
Metastatic ESS lacks any characteristic features on cytology and is frequently mistaken for a benign lesion or carcinoid tumor. A history of hysterectomy 26 years ago in our patient is an important clue to the diagnosis. The cytology smears were characterized by small, round to oval cells with no visible cytoplasm and no definite pattern of the arrangement of the tumor cells. Spindle cells were not evident and necrosis, mitoses, and hemorrhage were absent.
ESS is a very rare tumor of the endometrium comprising 1.0% of all uterine malignancies.[
Q2. Which immunohistochemical panel would be best to confirm the diagnosis of low-grade ESS?
Chromogranin, synaptophysin, CK5/6, INSM1, and ki67 CK7, TTF1, Napsin A, p63, and p40 CD10, ER, PR, WT1, AR, and interferon-induced transmembrane protein 1 (IFITM1) P16, desmin, SMA, and beta-catenin
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no single marker that is specific for low-grade-ESS; the use of a panel of immunohistochemical markers can help in making the diagnosis besides detailed clinical history. The tumor is typically positive for CD10, ER, PR, WT1, AR, and IFITM1. The neuroendocrine and smooth muscle markers were negative in our case [
(a) Immunohistochemical stain for CD10 ×200. (b) Immunohistochemical stain for WT1 ×200.
Q3. What is the most common cytogenetic abnormality associated with low-grade ESS?
t(7;17) (p16;q21) t(6;7) (p21;p15) t(10;17) (q22;p13) t(x;17)(p21-p11;q23)
Answer: a
Explanation: Different types of chromosomal abnormalities have been described in low-grade ESS and cytogenetic analyses have been used to confirm the diagnosis. Different types of translocation have been reported with t(7;17) translocation being the most distinctive cytogenetic hallmark of low-grade ESS with fusion of two genes
Q4 What is the most common site of metastasis of lowgrade ESS besides lung?
Bone Kidney Brain Abdomen
Answer: d
Explanation: The lung and abdomen are the most frequent sites of metastasis and recurrence.
Our case was discussed at the multidisciplinary conference for further management. Due to her age and oligo metastatic disease, the patient opted for close follow-up, and anti-hormonal therapy was recommended.
Endometrial stromal tumors are rare tumors that arise from the endometrial stroma. Low-grade ESS typically occurs in perimenopausal women and has a very indolent course with excellent prognosis.[
The cytologic features of metastatic low-grade ESS have rarely been described in the literature since it is rarely subjected to fine-needle aspiration.[
The diagnostic challenges of low-grade ESS in cytology have been emphasized by others, and in most case reports of metastatic low-grade ESS, a definite diagnosis was achieved only after performing molecular studies. Zaharopoulos
Ronen
Mindiola-Romero
Metastatic low-grade ESS presenting as a solitary lung nodule as observed in our case is very rare. The predominance of small, round to oval cells with bland nuclei was thought to be consistent with a carcinoid tumor. Negative expression for neuroendocrine markers prompted review of the previous clinical history and additional IHC workup. Positive expression for ER, PR, CD10, and WT1 markers and a remote history of hysterectomy 26 years ago for endometrial sarcoma facilitated in making the right diagnosis. It must be emphasized that none of the above markers are specific for ESS; however, positive staining for WT1 has been shown to be a useful marker for differentiating extrauterine ESS from other potential mimics.[
This report highlights the diagnostic pitfall of metastatic LGESS in cytology specimens. The importance of clinical history and appropriate use of ancillary tests cannot be overemphasized. Awareness of the various cytomorphologic features and potential mimics is important.
References
Breast lump: “Keep me in your differentials”
A 31-year-old female with tender lump in left breast lump 4 months with pain and intermittent yellow colored nipple discharge (2 months) [
(a) Left breast with erythema. (b,c, and c (inset). FNA smear showing inflammatory cells comprising of neutrophils, foamy macrophages, and degenerated cells along with cotton ball like colony in the center with radiating filaments [b, c, and c(inset): MGG; b, X10; c, X40; c(inset) Zoomed].
What is the diagnosis based on cytomorphology? Tuberculosis Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma Ductal carcinoma. 1. a. What is the special stain used in such cases? PAS ZN Gram All of the above None of the above. What is the most common causative agent of breast abscess? Staphylococcus Streptococcus Enterococcus Pseudomonas.
Actinomycosis is a chronic infection caused by
Breast actinomycosis is primary when inoculation occurs through the nipple. Secondary actinomycosis of the breast refers to the extension of a pulmonary infection through the thoracic cage in a process that can affect the ribs, muscles, and finally the breast.[
2. c. Gram
3. a.
There is no conflict of interest in this paper.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article. All authors read and approved the final manuscript. Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
FNAC was done after proper consent as routine diagnostic test.
PAS- Periodic Acid Schiff
ZN- Ziehl Nelson
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Diagnostic difficulties in evaluation of primary malignant lesions of thyroid: A study of cytomorphology, histopathology, and immunohistochemistry
18-year-old male presented with complaints of midline neck swellings since 1½ years associated with history of loss of weight. On examination, it was soft to firm in consistency. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT) neck was suggestive of neoplastic etiology. Cytopathological findings following ultrasound (USG)-guided fine-needle aspiration and cytology (FNAC) are shown in [
(a-c) Smear showing atypical spindle cell arranged in dyscohesive clusters and swirls. The cells reveal hyperchromatic nuclei with moderate amount of cytoplasm (MGG, ×400); (d) Smear showing a biphasic lesion comprising of both epithelial component (arrow) forming acini and spindle cells (MGG, ×100).
Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY diagnosis?
Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid Primary Synovial Sarcoma (SS) Spindle Epithelial Tumor with Thymus-Like Differentiation (SETTLE) Papillary Carcinoma Undifferentiated (Anaplastic) Thyroid Carcinoma Immature Teratoma of thyroid
Answer: d. Papillary Carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma thyroid (PTC) cannot be the differential diagnosis in this case as cytologically PTC reveals syncytial cell aggregates and sheets with distinct anatomical borders. Papillary fragments with or without a fibrovascular core can also be seen. The cells typically show intranuclear inclusions and nuclear grooves.
However, medullary carcinoma, SETTLE, undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma, immature teratoma of thyroid, and SS can all reveal spindle cell pattern. Although primary SS of thyroid is not a well-known entity and is very uncommon, the possibility cannot be ruled out.
The patient presented with a midline neck swelling [
Patient presented with a soft to firm midline neck swelling.
Ultrasonography of thyroid showing an oval hypoechoic lesion with central cystic area in the right lobe of thyroid.
Radionuclide thyroid scan showing a euthyroid gland with hypofunctioning nodule in the upper pole of the right lobe of thyroid gland.
On cytology, the smears were cellular and revealed a biphasic lesion consisting of spindle cell and epithelial components. The atypical spindle cells were arranged in dyscohesive clusters and forming whorled pattern. Individual cells revealed hyperchromatic nuclei with scant tapering cytoplasm. Interspersed in between were seen epithelial cells arranged in acinar pattern having round to oval nuclei with some showing prominent nucleoli [
Primary SS – Biphasic Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid
Smears showing negative congo red stain (Congo red, ×100).
The patient, then, underwent a total thyroidectomy and the specimen was sent for histopathological examination (HPE). On gross examination [
Total thyroidectomy specimen with tumour mass showing solid-cystic areas.
Microscopy [
(a and c) Section showing spindle cells arranged in fascicles and whorls (H and E, ×100); (b and d) Higher magnification of the same (H and E, ×400); (e) Section showing epithelial cells arranged in papillae and tubules (H and E, ×100); (f) Higher magnification of the same (H and E, ×400).
Section showing epithelial cells arranged in papillae and tubules (H and E, ×100).
Higher magnification of the same (H and E, ×400).
IHC studies were done in a referral center. The tumor was immunoreactive for CK, CD99, and epithelial membrane antigen (EMA).
CK – Immunoreactive score 4+ in lesional cells CD 99 – Immunoreactive score 3+ in lesional cells EMA – Immunoreactive score 3+ in lesional cells. Non-immunoreactive score 0 in lesional cells – CK7, Calretinin, Synaptophysin, TTF-1, and CK5/6.
Q2. Which of the following is the definitive diagnosis?
Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid Primary SS SETTLE Papillary Carcinoma Undifferentiated (Anaplastic) Thyroid Carcinoma Immature Teratoma of thyroid
Q3. Which of the following IHC markers is not specific for this entity?
TLE1 h-caldesmon EMA Cytokeratin (CK)
Q4. Which of the following molecular pathologies is diagnostic of this entity?
Gain of function mutation in RET proto-oncogene TP53 mutations t(X;18)(p11.q11) translocation Point mutations
Answers to additional questions:
Answer 2: b. Primary SS
Answer 3: a. TLE1
Answer 4: c. t(X;18)(p11.q11) translocation
SETTLE can be differentiated from SS on the basis of lower nuclear grade, glomeruloid glandular structures, stromal hyalinization, and diffuse expression of high molecular weight CK. The abovementioned features were absent in the present case.
Cytological smears of medullary carcinomas are cellular and the cells may show variable patterns including plasmacytoid, small cells, or spindle cells. They may also variably exhibit amyloid or coarse red cytoplasmic granularity. In contrast to SS, these are positive for TTF-1 (weak to moderate), while the amyloid is positive for Congo red, both of which were negative in the present case.
The patients with anaplastic carcinomas (AC) are usually women who present after 60 years of age. Cytological examination of AC shows the presence of necrotic background and highly pleomorphic malignant cells. The cells may range from spindle/squamoid cells to multinucleate and bizarre giant cells.
Although immature teratomas of thyroid can also be considered as a differential diagnosis, very few cases have been reported, with an average age of 43 years. Although in these cases also FNA reveals dominance of immature spindle cells since there was absence of immature neural tissue in the present case; thus, the possibility of being a malignant teratoma was excluded from the study. In addition to this, our patient was of 18 years of age and the FNA smears revealed a biphasic tumor comprising of both; spindle cell as well as epithelial cell component.
SSs show a moderate/strong nuclear expression for TLE1 which is a transcriptional corepressor. However, it is not specific for this entity alone. TLE 1 may also be seen in malignant nerve sheath tumor and solitary fibrous tumor. Other non-specific markers include bcl2 and CD99. Although a majority of SS show membranous positivity for these, they are not specific.
SSs are characterized by SYT-SSX1, SYT-SSX2, or SYT-SSX4 fusion gene. This is a result of t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation which leads to the fusion of SS18 on chromosome 18 to one of the SSX genes- SSX1, SSX2, or SSX4.
Based on the above findings and discussion, a final diagnosis of the primary SS of thyroid was given.
SS is an exceedingly rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm accounting for about 10% of soft-tissue sarcomas.[
The primary SS of thyroid is a rare, high grade, and aggressive tumor. To the best of our knowledge, only 13 cases have been reported in the literature so far.[
Radiological examination usually falls short in differentiating it from other thyroid malignancies. However, it can contribute in the assessment of location, size, vascularization, and local invasion.[
Pre-operative diagnosis based on FNAC is usually not supportive, although HPE may be contributory to some extent.[
The primary SS of thyroid is an extremely uncommon entity; however, the possibility cannot be entirely ruled out. Cytological findings, in our case, were strongly in favor of the primary SS. Although the definitive diagnosis was possible only on IHC studies, however molecular profiling is mandatory for further evaluation.
References
Touch preparation from a pancreatic core biopsy
A 50-year-old male presented with abdominal pain and weight loss. Abdominal CT showed a 5 cm round mass in the head of the pancreas. An ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy was performed. Touch prep of the needle cores performed for rapid onsite evaluation [
The touch prep showed loose clusters of cells with occasional vague acinar formations (a and b), abundant cytoplasm, occasional nucleoli, and mild-to-moderate anisonucleosis (c).
Q1. What is your interpretation of the touch preparation?
Atypical epithelial cells, suspicious for carcinoma Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor Negative for malignancy, favor chronic pancreatitis Gastrointestinal contaminant (duodenal epithelium).
The correct cytological interpretation is
a. Atypical epithelial cells, suspicious for carcinoma.
A diagnosis of “suspicious for carcinoma,” A is appropriate when some or most features of carcinoma are present but fall qualitatively or quantitatively short of a definitive diagnosis for carcinoma. In this case, the touch prep shows variably sized loose clusters and single cells with acinar formation. The cells show abundant granular cytoplasm. The nuclei show mild-to-moderate anisonucleosis with occasional prominent nucleoli, and salt-and-pepper chromatin. At the time of rapid onsite evaluation, “suspicious for carcinoma” is the most appropriate diagnosis. The differential diagnosis would include pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma (ACC) and pancreatic neuroendocrine neoplasm.
Pancreatic well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors show loosely cohesive cell clusters and single cells. Cytological preparations from these tumors may also demonstrate pseudo rosette formation that is impossible to distinguish from the acinar formation noted in ACC. Anisonucleosis is minimal, and the nuclear chromatin may show a classic salt-and-pepper appearance, clumping, or even prominent nucleoli.
A diagnosis of negative for malignancy, favor chronic pancreatitis, would be appropriate in the absence of neoplastic cells and when features of chronic pancreatitis are present. Cytological preparations may show inflammatory cells (predominantly macrophages, but also lymphocytes and occasional neutrophils). There may be rare ductal cells with mild-to-moderate atypia and fibrotic acinar tissue.
Duodenal contamination would consist of sheets of uniform epithelial cells with occasional goblet cells.
Q2. H&E stained sections are prepared from the tissue cores [
Neuroendocrine neoplasm Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm Pancreatic ACC Islet cell pseudohypertrophy in chronic pancreatitis.
The core biopsy showed nests of cells with only mild nuclear anisocytosis and occasional inconspicuous nucleoli.
Q3. Special stains and immunohistochemical preparations show the following results: Positive trypsin, BCL-10, and beta-catenin (membranous) with weak and focal positivity for neuroendocrine markers (synaptophysin, chromogranin, and CD56), PAS-D highlighted intracytoplasmic zymogen granules, and CD10 was negative [
Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm Pancreatic adenocarcinoma with predominantly acinar differentiation Pancreatoblastoma.
(a) Trypsin, (b) Bcl-10, (c) PAS-D, (d) Synaptophysin, (e) Beta-catenin, and (f) CD-10.
Answers to additional quiz questions:
Q2: d; Q3: c
The H&E stained biopsy cores show a solid cellular neoplasm. This brings up a differential diagnosis of a neuroendocrine neoplasm, solid pseudopapillary neoplasm, pancreatic ACC, and pancreatoblastoma.
Pancreatic well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors demonstrate a nested, trabecular, or infiltrating (in the case of neuroendocrine carcinoma) growth pattern. Nuclei are round and uniform. The nuclear chromatin classically shows a salt-and-pepper appearance; however, nuclear clumping and prominent nucleoli can also be seen.
Solid pseudopapillary neoplasms can form solid masses with degenerative cystic changes. The cells are loosely cohesive and may form pseudopapillae. Other features that may be present in pancreatic solid pseudopapillary tumors are cytoplasmic vacuoles, hyaline globules, and foamy histiocytes.
Pancreatic ACC shows a solid or lobular growth pattern with acinar formations. Cells show prominent cytoplasm with intracytoplasmic granules. The nuclei show mild anisonucleosis with prominent nucleoli.
Islet cell pseudohypertrophy in chronic pancreatitis can be mass-forming; however, this would occur in a background of atrophy with obliteration of pancreatic parenchyma. Acinar formation and abundant cytoplasm with intracytoplasmic granules are not features of islet cell pseudohypertrophy.
The addition of immunostains and special stains would support an impression of pancreatic ACC. A PAS/D stain highlights intracytoplasmic zymogen granules. Positive staining for trypsin, BCL-10, and membranous beta-catenin are also characteristic of this neoplasm. However, there is also focal, weak positivity for synaptophysin, and raising the possibility that the resection material could show a mixed acinar/neuroendocrine carcinoma, hence, the final diagnosis of “pancreatic carcinoma with predominantly acinar differentiation.”
Acinar cell carcinoma (ACC) is a rare pancreatic malignancy that comprises about 1% of pancreatic neoplasia.[
Radiographically, pancreatic ACC presents as a solid and hypovascular mass. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) is a fundamental step in achieving an accurate diagnosis with a sensitivity for detecting malignancy of up to 96%.[
References
Cytopathologic evaluation of a subcarinal lesion presenting as mass in a smoker
A 72-year-old asymptomatic male with 25 pack-year smoking history underwent low dose computed tomography (CT) of chest for lung cancer screening. The CT imaging reported a subcarinal mass (5.5 × 3.9 × 2.0 cm). Endobronchial ultrasound confirmed a 2 cm subcarinal mass at Station 7. A transbronchial fine-needle aspiration (TB-FNA) of the lesion was performed [
Direct smears of TB-FNA were hypocellular with predominance of cellular debris (a and b) with a few apical fragments of lining cells. These cell fragments demonstrated diagnostic features as seen in zoomed images (arrows) (a1 through a8 and b1 through b8). (a and a1 through a8: Papanicolaou stain; b and b1 through b8: Diff-Quik stain).
What is the most likely interpretation?
Metastatic carcinoma with cystic necrosis Cystic hygroma (cavernous lymphangioma) Esophageal duplication cyst Ciliated lined cyst (bronchogenic cyst/ciliated foregut cyst) Abscess
D. Ciliated lined cyst (bronchogenic cyst/ciliated foregut cyst)
The posterior mediastinal lesion was reported on CT scan as well demarcated smooth right subcarinal soft-tissue mass [
Unenhanced CT scan of thorax showing a smooth margined right subcarinal soft tissue mass (arrows) measuring 3.9 x 5.4 cm in the posterior mediastinum with no airspace consolidation, pleural effusion or pneumothorax.
Cell-block of TBFNA aspirate showing degenerated cellular debris with occasional cell fragments showing cilia (arrows). These cell fragments demonstrate diagnostic features as seen in zoomed images (a through f).
Metastatic carcinoma (Option A) as metastasis of carcinoma of lung, breast, thyroid, and genitourinary tract is relatively common to the mediastinum. Although most of the metastatic carcinoma present as a solid lesion, they can have a cystic component with coagulative necrosis as tumor diathesis, some viable diagnostic malignant cells are expected be found in the sample. It can be challenging to sample such lesions adequately during rapid on-site evaluation due to a high percentage of non-diagnostic necrotic component. Sampling from the periphery of the lesions increases the diagnostic yield. If the cystic lesion does not resolve completely after the aspiration of cyst contents, the residual lesion should be sampled adequately.
Cystic hygroma (cavernous lymphangioma) (Option B) usually occurs in children. It may be located in the neck or axilla, often extending into mediastinum, and rarely present in the lymph node. Large mediastinal lesions may compress lungs, heart, and nerves, even though most lesions are asymptomatic. Microscopically large and irregular lymphovascular spaces are lined by flattened and bland endothelial cells with variable proportion of fibroblastic collagenous stroma. The aspirates are usually hypocellular with relatively non-specific findings including scant endothelial cells with bland morphology with a few scattered lymphocytes and histiocytes in the background of amorphous proteinaceous material.[
Esophageal duplication cysts (option C) are usually unilocular; however, they can be multiloculated with mucoid contents. Depending on the type of the cyst-lining, the aspirated cyst contents in addition to the debris show squamous, simple columnar, pseudostratified columnar, or mixed epithelial cells but are devoid of ciliated cells.
Abscess (Option E) shows purulent inflammation with predominance of neutrophils. Grocott-Gomori Methenamine Silver and Gram stain may show organisms such as fungi and bacteria. The organisms may also be seen with Diff-Quik stained direct smears and culture may grow causative organism(s).
What are the diagnostic features of bronchogenic cyst?
Contains tissues derived from all germ cell layers Contains cartilage and smooth muscle in the wall Typically lined by respiratory, cuboidal, and/or squamous epithelium Lined by stratified squamous or gastrointestinal epithelium. None of the above.
Cystic teratoma is lined by variable mixtures of gastrointestinal, squamous, and respiratory epithelium. It typically contains tissues derived from multiple germ cell layers. Some cases may contain immature tissue with nuclear atypia.
Thyroglossal duct cysts may be lined by respiratory epithelium; however, their cyst walls contain thyroid follicles and lack smooth muscle and cartilage.
Esophageal duplication cysts are lined by stratified squamous or gastrointestinal epithelium. They are usually found to be attached to the esophageal wall and have two smooth muscle layers.
Dermoid cysts are lined by stratified squamous epithelium, contain hair, and other skin appendages with keratinaceous or sebaceous material.
Abscess may mimic bronchogenic cyst. However, an abscess neither will have a true lining nor cartilage and smooth muscle in their wall. They, however, may contain foci of squamous metaplasia. The aspirates predominantly show suppurative material as numerous acute inflammatory cells with variable degenerative changes.
Branchial cleft cysts resemble bronchogenic cyst with ciliated lining; however, they may show squamous metaplasia and lymphoid aggregates with reactive germinal centers. They may also be filled with keratinaceous debris. In contrast to this, the bronchogenic cyst wall shows smooth muscle with variable proportion of seromucinous glands and hyaline cartilage (Option B).
Which of the following malignancies are reported in bronchogenic cyst?
Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Large cell carcinoma Mucoepidermoid carcinoma All of the above
Bronchogenic cysts are non-neoplastic hamartoma. However, similar to other anatomical tissues, rarely malignancy has been reported in bronchogenic cyst. The risk of malignancy in bronchogenic cyst is reportedly 0.7%.[
Pathophysiology of carcinogenesis in a bronchogenic cyst is not clear. One of the possibility is that the unstable epithelial cells in the cyst wall could have malignant potential leading to carcinoma. Whooley
In the list mentioned below, which is the best diagnostic feature of a bronchogenic cyst?
Degenerated debris Ciliated cell fragments Intracystic proteinaceous material Chronic inflammatory cells in a myxoid background Numerous acute inflammatory cells
Being a cyst lined by ciliated epithelial lining, the aspirates from the cyst show debris of degenerated exfoliated lining cells with apical fragments of ciliated cells similar to ciliocytophthoria.
Bronchogenic cyst can be seen in which of the following location(s)?
Midline superficial supra-sternal Lateral to the thyroid Around the hilum of the lung Sub-carinal All the above
Although the most common location of the bronchogenic cyst is superficial midline supra-sternal, it can also be found sub-carinal in the mediastinum, around the hilum of the lungs and lateral to the thyroid gland.
It usually originates as a late budding from the ventral side of embryonic lung or the tracheobronchial tree that occurs between the 26th and the 40th day of gestation. This abnormal bud then becomes a fluid-filled and blind-ending pouch termed bronchogenic cyst. Most of them are asymptomatic at birth and early life. Later in life, it may be symptomatic due to cyst enlargement leading to local compression and pressure on adjacent tissue/organ, occasionally secondary to infection or perforation.[
The site of bronchogenic cysts depends on the stage of development when the malformation occurs. The most common site is thorax, for example, mediastinum (early in development), and lung (later in development).[
Bronchogenic cysts are lined by pseudostratified columnar or cuboidal ciliated (respiratory) epithelium. The cyst wall often contains smooth muscle fibers, elastic fibers, submucosal bronchial glands, and hyaline cartilage. The cyst wall helps to distinguish them from other ciliated lined cysts such as foregut cyst, duplication cyst, and branchial cleft cyst. The role of cytology is crucial to properly triage such patients. Endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration (EUSFNA) in the current case was consistent with ciliated lined cystic lesion without malignant cells [
Complete removal of the cyst, especially if symptomatic due to possibility of complications in the future, is the preferred recommendation. Approximately 50% of bronchogenic cysts present with pain.[
The efficacy of EUS-FNA of cystic lesions partly depends on the site, size, and characteristics of the target tissue as well as on the expertise, training, and coordination between the procedure-performer and the cytology team.[
Bronchogenic cyst may be difficult to aspirate by TB-FNA, especially when the cyst content is thickly mucoid with debris. As observed in our case, intact ciliated cells could not be detected; however, there were many cell top fragments of the ciliated cells similar to ciliocytophthoria in Papanicolaou stained and Diff Quik stained direct smears [
A rare presentation or an uncommon lesion can be a clinical challenge. FNA cytology is minimally invasive modality for evaluation of space occupying lesions and for exclusion of malignancy. Although non-specific, the cytomorphological features in correlation with clinical and imaging details were consistent with bronchogenic cyst by detecting clues for respiratory type epithelium in the present case reported initially as mass lesion on imaging [
Answers for Question 2 through 5:
2. B
3. E
4. B
5. E
References
Dumbbell-shaped swelling of the ear lobe: Cytomorphological clues
10 cm nodule (growing in size, firm, non-tender, dumbbell-shaped) on the left ear lobe in a 22-year-old male after ear-piercing 6 months ago. Fine-needle aspiration showed scant paucicellular material with a few spindle-shaped cells with scant to absent cytoplasm. Eosinophilic collagen-like material was seen in myxoid background [
(a) Paucicellular smear with a few spindle cells (MGG, ×400). (b) with eosinophilic collagen-like material (MGG, ×400). (c) Gross: Skin-covered soft tissue with 10 cm nodule. (d) Hyperkeratotic stratified squamous epithelium with large dense bundles of glassy collagen in mid to deep dermis showed (H & E, ×100). Inset: Masson’s trichrome stain highlights the thick collagen bundles in the mid-dermis (×200).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Keloid Hypertrophic scar Nodular fasciitis Fibromatosis
Answer: Q1-A. Keloid.
Cytomorphological differential diagnosis of the present case includes keloid, hypertrophic scar, fibromatosis, and nodular fasciitis. On cytology, keloid shows sparse fibroblastic spindle to oval-shaped cells, either single or in clusters along with thick, hyalinized, glassy, and eosinophilic collagen bundles named “keloid collagen” in a mucinous ground substance.[
Nodular fasciitis occurs most commonly in young adults and is more common in the subcutaneous tissue of the upper extremities, trunk, head, and neck. It is a self-limiting fibrous neoplasm.[
Fibromatosis occurs almost at every site of the body.[
Q2. Which of the following characteristic feature distinguishes keloid from the hypertrophic scar?
Spindle- or oval-shaped fibroblastic cells Bland fibroblastic cells with bipolar cytoplasmic extension Mucinous ground substance Sparse chronic inflammatory background
Answer: Q2-C. Mucinous ground substance.
Both keloid and hypertrophic scars show similar cytomorphological features. Mucinous ground substance is scant or absent in hypertrophic scar as opposed to keloid.[
The mass was surgically excised. Grossly, it measured 10 cm in maximum dimension, and externally, it was skin-covered [
The patient was on regular follow-up. There was no recurrence after 6 months of follow-up.
Q3. Which type(s) of collagen is found in keloids?
Type I Type II Type III Types I and III
Answer: Q3-D. Types I and III.
Keloid is characterized by haphazardly arranged large, thick, Types I and III hypocellular collagen bundles with no nodules, or excess myofibroblasts.[
Keloid is a reactive condition resulting from excessive scar formation due to an aberrant healing process.[
Keloids are most frequent among African population and less common in Caucasians.[
Although histopathological features of keloid have been aptly described in the literature, cytomorphology of keloid is rarely reported in the literature.[
Cytomorphology of keloid and its differential diagnoses.
Cytomorphological features | Keloid | Hypertrophic scar | Nodular fasciitis | Fibromatosis |
---|---|---|---|---|
Cellularity | Sparsely cellular | Cellular | Highly cellular | Depending on age and location, the lesion may be cellular to acellular |
Cell morphology | Fibroblastic spindle to oval-shaped cells, either single or in clusters with bipolar cytoplasmic extensions | Same as keloid | Polymorphic cells have spindle, round, and oval to triangular-shaped cells. Cells have cytoplasmic processes and round to ovoid nuclei | Fibroblastic oval to spindle-shaped cells in clusters with tapering cytoplasmic processes |
Collagen | Thick, hyalinized, eosinophilic “keloidal collagen” | Fine fibrillar collagen | Absent | Densely eosinophilic collagen |
Mucinous ground substance | Present | Scant or absent | Myxoid background | Absent |
Chronic inflammatory cells | Sparse | Sparse | Present | Sparse |
Giant cells | Absent | Occasional foreign body type giant cells | Few binucleate/trinucleate cells | Occasional multinucleated giant cells |
Although hypertrophic scar and nodular fasciitis have traumatic etiology, they can regress without any surgical management. Keloid and fibromatosis require surgical excision and can recur if incompletely excised.[
In the present case, the cytological clues favoring keloid were paucicellular smears with the presence of eosinophilic collagen. The mass was surgically excised and there was no recurrence after 6 months of follow-up.
Keloid is a common lesion with distinct cytological features. The characteristic cytological features include paucicellular spindle cells with eosinophilic collagen. The common cytomorphological differential diagnoses include a hypertrophic scar, nodular fasciitis, and fibromatosis.
The authors have no conflicts of interest.
Concept: Biswajit Dey and Jitendra Singh Nigam. Design: Jyotsna Naresh Bharti, Biswajit Dey, Jitendra Singh Nigam, and Pooja Garg. Definition of Intellectual Content: Jyotsna Naresh Bharti and Biswajit Dey. Literature Search: Jyotsna Naresh Bharti, Biswajit Dey, Jitendra Singh Nigam, and Pooja Garg. Data Acquisition: Biswajit Dey and Pooja Garg. Data Analysis: Jyotsna Naresh Bharti, Biswajit Dey, Jitendra Singh Nigam, and Pooja Garg. Manuscript Preparation: Jyotsna Naresh Bharti, Biswajit Dey, Jitendra Singh Nigam, and Pooja Garg. Manuscript editing and Review: Jitendra Singh Nigam, Jyotsna Naresh Bharti, and Biswajit Dey.
The informed and written consent was obtained from the patient. The case was submitted without identifiers.
References
Ulcerated scalp nodule in elderly female: Cytomorphological clues and pitfalls for diagnosis
A 63-year-old female with ulcerated scalp swelling (2.0 × 2.0 cm × 2.0 cm, not attached to the underlying bone, without regional lymphadenopathy) since 2 years with frequent bleeding on trivial trauma. Fine-needle aspirate showed features as shown in
FNA aspirate showing squamous and basaloid cells (a, PAP ×100; b, MGG ×100) with blotchy keratinous material (c, MGG ×100). Squamous cells without atypia showed moderate cytoplasm. (d, MGG ×100).
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Ulcerated pilar cyst Pilomatrixoma Trichoepithelioma Proliferating trichilemmal tumor (PTT) Squamous cell carcinoma d
d. Proliferating trichilemmal tumor.
Explanation: The fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears were moderately cellular and showed anucleate and nucleated squamous cells, basaloid cells [
Wide local excision was advised for histopathological confirmation. On gross examination, the lesion was partly skin-covered; nodular, measuring 2.5 × 2.0 × 2.0 cm. The overlying skin was ulcerated. On the cut section, the tumor was solid and grayish-white. Microscopy revealed a lobulated intradermal mass of squamous epithelium [
Lobules of squamoid cells with pushing borders and cystic spaces filled with keratinous material. No evidence of infiltration was seen (H&E 40×).
Trichilemmal type keratinization showing extensive glassy keratinous material without granular layer. Squamous cells do not show any atypia (H&E 100×).
During fine-needle aspiration cytological evaluation of any skin nodule, the following differential diagnoses should be considered.
Pilar cyst: Pilar cyst is defined as a cyst containing keratin and its breakdown products. It arises preferentially in areas of high hair follicle concentrations; therefore, 90% of cases occur on the scalp. They are solitary in 30% of cases and multiple in 70% of cases. These are cystic nodular lesions with a smooth external surface. Young pilar cysts show abundant blotchy keratin with or without calcification and inflammation. Older cysts show necrotic debris with cholesterol crystals and inflammatory cells Pilomatrixoma is a benign cutaneous adnexal tumor having differentiation toward the hair follicle matrix with a predilection for the head-and-neck region of children and young adults. However, a bimodal pattern with the first peak in the first decade and the second in the sixth decade of life, along with a female preponderance is observed.[ Conventional trichoepithelioma is usually seen in children and young adults as multiple, small, 2–4 mm papules. Giant solitary trichoepithelioma, however, occurs in elderly individuals and arises most commonly on the thigh and perianal region. On fine-needle aspiration cytology, it shows fronds of basaloid epithelial cells with abrupt keratinization, papillary mesenchymal body, and melanin pigmentation.[ Proliferating trichilemmal tumor (PTT), also referred to as proliferating pilar tumor (PPT), is a tumor originating from the outer root sheath of a hair follicle. The histologic hallmark of PTT is the presence of trichilemmal keratinization.[ The diagnosis of SCC was ruled out as squamous cells did not show any cellular atypia, pleomorphism, dyskeratotic cells, or tumor diathesis. Reactive epithelial atypia in inflamed pilar cysts may appear worrisome and raise the suspicion of SCC.
For cytological diagnosis of PTT, smears should show the presence of blotchy keratin, basaloid cells, squamous epithelial cells, and trichilemmal keratinization. However, these features may not be present in smears always and may lead to diagnostic dilemmas.
The presence of keratin material only may lead to misdiagnosis of epidermoid cysts or pilar cysts.
Reactive epithelial atypia in inflamed cysts can look worrisome. Smears with basaloid cells with abrupt keratinization may get erroneously diagnosed as trichoepithelioma or keratotic BCC.
It is not possible to differentiate on FNAC between benign and low-grade malignant PTT as smears in both have similar cytomorphological features. However, cytology of high-grade malignant PTT shows trichilemmal keratinization, blotchy keratin, basaloid cells, and atypical squamous epithelial cells.
The cytological diagnosis of PTT can be made in the presence of blotchy keratin, basaloid cells, squamous epithelial cells, and trichilemmal keratinization. However, these features may not be present in cytological smears and may lead to diagnostic dilemmas. Furthermore, the distinction between benign PPT (Group I) and low malignant PTT (Group II) is not possible on FNAC alone. FNA plays an important role to exclude SCC and high malignant PTT and to decide surgical management. PTT without atypia has a benign behavior, wide local excision of the lesion is recommended to prevent a recurrence.
References
Fine needle aspiration of hematolymphoid lesions of the thyroid: Onsite adequacy and ancillary testing
A 7-year-old girl presented with an enlargement of the thyroid gland. Thyroid hormones and serologic testing were normal. A thyroid ultrasound showed a right 0.8 cm thyroid nodule with microcalcifications and well-defined borders. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) revealed polymorphic lymphocytes without Hurthle cells [
Polymorphic population of lymphocytes and histiocytes, with squamoid cells (yellow arrows in a and b). A: PAP stain ×10; (b) PAP stain ×100; (c) Higher magnification of histiocytes and polymorphic lymphocytes (red arrowhead- lymphoblast, green arrowhead- small lymphocytes) (Diff Quick stain ×100); (d) Polymorphic population of small lymphocytes (red arrowhead- lymphoblast, green arrowhead- lymphocytes) (PAP stain ×100).
What is your interpretation?
Colloid nodule Primary thyroid extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma Extranodal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma of the thyroid Squamous cell carcinoma chronic inflammation Ectopic intrathyroidal thymic tissue
Answer to question 1: Option E (ectopic intrathyroidal thymic tissue).
The aspirates were moderately cellular and showed predominantly polymorphic lymphocytes with occasional histiocytes. The lymphocytes were predominantly small to medium in size with mature clumped chromatin and a smaller subset featuring large nuclei with open chromatin (lymphoblasts). Furthermore, evaluation of the aspirate smear showed occasional aggregates of squamoid cells consistent with Hassall corpuscles [
Immunophenotyping by flow cytometry analysis [
Flow cytometry report on needle rinse of FNA of the lesion.
Target cell population | MoAb/CD# | CD45dim Lymphs | CD45brt Lymphs | Gate type: CD45 versus SS-log |
---|---|---|---|---|
% of total cell population | 29 | 46 | Sample preparation: density-gradient; mononuclear isolation with RBC lysis | |
Commonly found on: | ||||
CD45 | 64 | 100 | Pan-Leukocytes | |
T cell markers | ||||
CD1a | 34 | 17 | Cortical thymocytes | |
CD5+ | 91 | 97 | Pan T cells | |
CD7 | 95 | 90 | Pan T cells | |
CD2 | 94 | 99 | Pan T cells | |
CD3 | 4 | 98 | Mature T cells | |
CD4 | 64 | 65 | Helper/Inducer T cells | |
CD8 | 30 | 38 | Suppressor/cytotoxic T cells | |
CD4+/CD8+ | 27 | 6 | T cell precursor subset | |
CD56 | 1 | 1 | NK cells; T cell subset | |
CD57 | 0 | 2 | NK cell subset; T cell subset | |
B cell markers | ||||
HLA-DR | 10 | 10 | B, NK, Myeloid, Activated T cells | |
CD10 | 3 | 0 | Early B lineage, Early T cells | |
CD20 | 1 | 0 | Late B lineage cells | |
CD22 | 2 | 0 | Pan-B cells | |
CD19 | 2 | 1 | Pan-B cells | |
Additional markers | ||||
CD38 | 95 | 76 | Broad lineage; Activation marker | |
CD34 | 25 | 0 | Early precursors, Stem cells |
Markers for Myeloid (CD15, CD16, CD11b, CD14, CD13, CD33, CD34, CD64); Monocytic, Platelet/Megakaryocytic (CD41, 61+/CD14-, CD61, CD36); and Erythroid Markers (CD36, Gly A) negative. brt: Bright, Lymphs: Lymphocytes, MoAb/CD#: Monoclonal antibody/CD number
Cellblock sections showed polymorphic lymphocytes that were immunoreactive for TdT without immunoreactivity for CD34 [
The lymphocytes were immunoreactive for TdT and nonimmunoreactive for CD34 (a and b, ×40, immunohistochemistry on cell-block sections).
The aspirates did not show thyroid follicular cells and any colloid in the background (option A). Primary thyroid lymphomas are extremely rare and account for <1% of cases of extranodal lymphomas.[
The thymus is the primary organ of T lymphocyte development and partly develops from the endoderm of the third pharyngeal pouch. Which of the following organs have the same embryologic origin as the thymus?
Thyroid gland Superior parathyroid glands Inferior parathyroid glands Ultimobranchial bodies
Answer to question 2: Option C (inferior parathyroid glands).
The inferior parathyroid gland originates from the endoderm of the third pharyngeal pouch just like the thymus.[
According to the World Health Organization classification, the obligatory criteria for diagnosing type B1 thymoma includes:
Occurrence of bland spindle-shaped epithelial cells (at least focally) and paucity or absence of immature (TdT+) T cells throughout the tumor Increased numbers of single or clustered polygonal or dendritic epithelial cells intermingled with abundant immature T cells Thymus-like architecture and cytology with abundance of immature T cells, areas of medullary differentiation (medullary islands), and paucity of polygonal or dendritic epithelia cells without clustering (i.e.,<3 contiguous epithelial cells) Occurrence of bland, spindle-shaped epithelial cells (at least focally), and abundance of immature (TdT+) T cells focally or throughout tumor Sheets of polygonal slightly to moderately atypical epithelial cells; absent or rare intercellular bridges; paucity or absence of intermingled TdT+ T cells
Answer to question 3: Option C (thymus-like architecture and cytology with abundance of immature T cells, areas of medullary differentiation (medullary islands), and paucity of polygonal or dendritic epithelia cells without clustering (i.e.,<3 contiguous epithelial cells).[
Occurrence of bland spindle-shaped epithelial cells (at least focally) and paucity or absence of immature (TdT+) T cells throughout the tumor is classified as Type A thymoma (option A).[
Increased numbers of single or clustered polygonal or dendritic epithelial cells intermingled with abundant immature T cells are classified as type B2 thymoma (option B).[
TdT immunostain is useful in delineating which of the following combinations?
Thymic carcinomas, thymomas, and epithelial cells of normal thymus Immature T cells of normal thymus, >90% of thymomas, and neoplastic T cells of T lymphoblastic lymphoma Epithelial cells of normal thymus, thymomas, thymic carcinomas, neuroendocrine tumors, many germ cell tumors, and dendritic cell tumors Normal and neoplastic B cells and epithelial cells of Type A and AB thymoma
Answer to Question 4: Option B (immature T cells of normal thymus, >90% of thymomas, and neoplastic T cells of T lymphoblastic lymphoma).
Thymic carcinomas, thymomas, and epithelial cells of normal thymus may be identified with cytokeratins (option A).[
Thyroid nodules are uncommon in the pediatric population as compared to adults and account for 0.2–2% of cases.[
Advances in ultrasonographic examinations have resulted in increased numbers of incidental thyroid gland lesions than previously reported.[
The differential diagnosis for thyroid lesion in children typically includes nodular goiter, lymphocytic thyroiditis, colloid cysts, follicular adenomas, degenerating nodules, and malignant thyroid nodules.[
Thymus is a primary lymphoid organ that plays an important role in the differentiation of T-cells.[
The two main differential diagnoses of ectopic thymic tissue (immature/maturing T-cells) include T-lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) and thymoma. Since both the normal thymic tissue as well as the background lymphocytes in thymoma would have identical immunophenotypic profile, the distinction cannot be made solely based on immunophenotypic grounds, rather it is made based on morphological examination showing infiltrating “dispersed” epithelial cells, which is consistent with thymoma. Benign thymic maturing T-cells demonstrate a characteristic maturation expression pattern on flow cytometric immunophenotyping, which allows for reliable distinction from T-ALL.
The unique variable pattern of maturing T-cells mainly includes the following markers: CD3, CD1a, CD34, CD4, and CD8. The earliest maturing thymic T-cells are initially negative for CD3, CD1a, CD4, and CD8. Later, they acquire CD1a, CD4, and CD8, followed by expression of surface CD3. Finally, they will commit to either CD4 or CD8 and will lose CD1a with retention of surface CD3 (i.e., mature T cells). The normal progression of maturing, non-neoplastic thymocytes, is from CD4(-)/CD8(-), to CD4(dim+)/CD8(-), to CD4(+)/CD8(+), finally to a mature helper T-cell CD4(+)/CD8(-) or CD4(-)/CD8(+) cytotoxic T cells. Similarly, thymocytes progress from CD34(+)/CD1a (-)/CD3 (-), to CD34(-)/CD1a(+)/CD3(-), to CD34(-)/CD1a(+)/CD3(+), and eventually to mature T-cell immunophenotype CD1a(-)/CD3(+). In this case, the immunophenotypic analysis is consistent with a population of immature/maturing T-cells (CD3-/CD2+/CD5+/CD7+, with variably express CD4+, CD8+, and CD4+/CD8+ subsets, along with partial CD1a expression) which, in the given patient scenario, is most consistent with ectopic thymic tissue in the thyroid gland [
Rapid onsite evaluation (ROSE) is a critical component of FNA procedure by pathologists and cytotechnologists to increase the diagnostic yield of FNA procedures. Multiple studies have reported improved specimen adequacy with this technique[
Thyroid nodules are uncommon in the pediatric population and when they do occur, are more likely to be malignant and associated with local, regional, or distant metastasis.
Ectopic thymic tissue in the thyroid is a rare occurrence in children and may be mistaken for other B and T lymphocytic lesions on FNA procedures due to morphologically overlapping low-grade lymphoproliferative lesions. ROSE during an FNA procedure is critical because it can initiate appropriate triage of the specimen for ancillary testing and increase diagnostic accuracy. This would minimize the potential of invasive procedures and interventions.
References
A subcutaneous firm nodule on scrotal skin: Cytological considerations
A 30-year-old patient presented with a solitary painless subcutaneous 3 × 3 cm nodule in the ventral aspect of the scrotum [
Solitary subcutaneous nodule (a) Cytology smear showed amorphous debris (b: May-Grunwald Giemsa, ×400); c: Papanicolaou, ×400; d: Zoomed area from c).
Q1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Calcified epidermal cyst Necrotic debris Scrotal calcinosis Scrotal pilomatrixoma.
Answer:
Q1-C. Scrotal calcinosis.
The presence of the amorphous basophilic substance, that is, calcific deposits without any epithelial cells in fine-needle aspiration (FNAC) smears, favored diagnosis of calcinosis.[
Q2: Which one generally is not considered as the cytological features of scrotal calcinosis?
Amorphous basophilic granular material Presence of foreign body giant cells Lymphocytes surrounding basophilic amorphous material Presence of numerous epithelial cells.
The FNAC of scrotal calcinosis generally shows the presence of amorphous basophilic granular material.[
Q3. Which special stain is used to demonstrate calcium?
Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) von Kossa Perl’s Prussian blue Rhodanine stain.
Calcium tissue deposits can be identified by the presence of von Kossa-positive black masses.[
A definitive diagnosis of scrotal calcinosis can be made only on the basis of histology.[
Histopathology showed calcific deposits in desmis (H and E, ×100).
Q4: Which of the following is not implicated in the pathogenesis of scrotal calcinosis?
Dystrophic calcification of scrotal epithelial cyst Degeneration of the dartos muscle Metastatic calcification secondary to metabolic derangement Unknown.
The pathogenesis of scrotal calcinosis is still unknown.[
There was no foreign body giant reaction around the calcific deposits or epithelial lining with normal levels of serum calcium, phosphorus, and parathormone in the present case. These findings favored an idiopathic etiopathogenesis in the present case suggesting a diagnosis of idiopathic scrotal calcinosis (ISC).
ISC is rare and has a benign course.[
Pathogenesis still remains unknown and continues to be debated.[
Clinical differential diagnosis includes other scrotal lesions such as calcified epidermal inclusion cyst, pilomatrixoma, steatocystoma, calcified parasitic cyst, ancient schwannoma, lipoma, fibroma, and cutaneous horn.[
The role of FNAC in the diagnosis of ISC remains limited; however, it can be a helpful as a preliminary diagnostic tool for this rare disorder.[
We have described an uncommon case of ISC in scrotal skin that can be reliably diagnosed on FNAC. ISC occurs in the absence of any calcium and phosphate metabolism abnormalities; however, the pathogenesis remains elusive. Therefore, surgical excision is the treatment of choice.
References
A diagnostic challenge in a rare variant of invasive breast carcinoma – How far one can go
Painless upper outer quadrant lump in left breast (single, hard, mobile, non-tender, irregular, measuring 4 × 3 cm) without axillary lymphadenopathy and without family history. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) showed findings shown in
(a) Tight clusters and morules of tumor cells against a clean background (Pap stain; ×10). (b) Cell clusters in papillary configurations, with many dissociated tumor cells (Pap stain; ×20). (c) Papillary structures with well-defined outline and without true fibrovascular core (Pap stain; ×40). (d) Round to oval tumor cells with distinct cell margins, moderate amount of pale cytoplasm, eccentrically placed round to pleomorphic nuclei with coarse chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli (Pap stain; ×40) (Breast lump, FNA direct smear).
Q1: What is the interpretation?
Papillary neoplasm of breast Papillary carcinoma of the breast Invasive micropapillary carcinoma of the breast Metastasis of papillary carcinoma to the breast.
Answer: (c) Invasive micropapillary carcinoma of the breast (IMPC)
The reports mentioning histopathological features are available in the reviewed literature; however, reports explaining the cytology of IMPC are scarce. The commonly observed features are richly cellular smears displaying angulated, three-dimensional cohesive clusters of ductal epithelial cells, and numerous dissociated cells with intact cytoplasm in a clean background [
The distinction of benign and malignant papillary neoplasms of the breast is essential from a management point of view; however, the cytologic diagnostic criteria are not sufficient to arrive at a definitive diagnosis in papillary lesions of the breast and show significant error due to overlapping features. The presence of increased cellularity, cellular atypia, long slender papillae, discohesive tumor cells with marked nuclear atypia, and absence of bare bipolar nuclei favor a malignant papillary lesion over the benign Invasive papillary carcinoma reveals ramifying papillae having true fibrovascular core lined by columnar cells with hyperchromatic and pleomorphic nuclei. The background also shows many cyst macrophages, presence of necrosis, and hemorrhage[ In contrast to this, IMPC displays cohesive and angulated cell clusters, tumor morules, and papilloid aggregates lacking a true fibrovascular core and marked cell dissociation. These cells are round to cuboidal with pale cytoplasm and centrally placed pleomorphic nuclei against a clean background[ The metastatic papillary carcinoma to breast also needs to be ruled out as the line of management is different. Detailed clinical workup for ovarian, endometrial, or thyroid papillary carcinoma could help to exclude the possibility of metastatic disease. In situations of dilemma, an immunohistochemical such as gross cystic disease fluid protein-15 or mammaglobin a sensitive and specific marker for further confirming the diagnosis of primary breast carcinoma.[
Question 2: IMPC is seen to be commonly associated with which subtype of invasive breast carcinoma?
Medullary carcinoma breast Tubular carcinoma Secretory carcinoma Mucinous carcinoma
Answer: (d) Mucinous carcinoma.[
Question 3: The smears from IMPC can also show features such as
Psammoma bodies Apocrine cytology Focal mucin deposition All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above.[
Question 4: IMPC an uncommon variant shows aggressive behavior because of
Hematogenous spread Lymphatic spread Pagetoid spread None of the above
Answer: (b) Lymphatic spread.
The patient subsequently underwent a modified radical mastectomy of left breast with ipsilateral axillary lymph node dissection. The specimen received measured 50 × 30 × 30 cm, and the cut surface revealed an irregular, firm, yellowish, and gritty tumor of size 5 × 4 × 3 cm situated in the upper and outer quadrant. A total of 15 lymph nodes were dissected from the left axilla. Multiple sections examined from mass revealed an infiltrating tumor composed of small hollow and morula-like clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounded by distinctly clear space and separated by thin fibrous septa [
Tumor aggregates without fibrovascular core surrounded by large empty spaces and separated by thin septa (HP: H&E stain; ×5).
Tumor cells in nests and tubules with central lumina displaying reverse polarity and separated by thin fibrous septa. The cells reveal nuclear pleomorphism and coarse chromatin with inconspicuous nucleoli (HP: H&E stain; ×40).
Detailed further workup also excluded primary ovarian, endometrial, thyroid, and renal malignancy. The patient underwent post-operative radiotherapy and chemotherapy. There is no evidence of relapse to date.
Pure IMPC is a rare variant of IBC constituting 0.9–2%.[
As a consequence of increasing awareness, timely diagnoses, and appropriate management of this rare variant; the 5-year overall survival of these patients has recently been improved and the treatment of choice is radical mastectomy with postoperative radiotherapy and chemotherapy.[
Histopathology shows characteristic micropapillae lying within clear spaces and separated by a thin fibrocollagenous stroma, thus exhibiting inside-out phenomenon a diagnostic hallmark of IMPC.[
To sum up the precise, cytodiagnosis of invasive IMPC can be offered with certainty if one carefully looks for the indicators such as angulated papilloid cell clusters with anatomical borders and lacking a fibrovascular core, tumor morules, and plenty of dissociated malignant cells in a clean background.
References
Epithelioid cell granulomas in urine cytology smears: A diagnostic approach
A 35-year-old female patient presented with painful gross hematuria associated with clots and burning micturition for a duration of 1 month. She also reported urgency, incontinence, and nocturia. She had a history of lower segment cesarean section done 8 months previously. There was no history of fever or other associated comorbidity. The general examination was unremarkable.
(a,b) Dense acute inflammation along with histiocytic aggregates (Urine smear, Giemsa, a ×100; b, ×400), (c) Epithelioid cell granuloma with inflammatory cells (Papanicolaou stain, ×400), (d) Positive for Acid fast bacilli (AFB) (arrow) (Ziehl–Nielsen stain, ×1000 oil immersion).
What is your interpretation?
Tuberculosis of urinary tract Urothelial changes with treatment effect Malignancy Cystitis cystica glandularis.
The correct cytopathological interpretation is (a) Urinary tract tuberculosis.
Three consecutive urine samples showed the presence of epithelioid cell granulomas and multinucleated giant cells along with reactive urothelial cells and inflammatory cells [
Ultrasonography for kidney, ureter, and urinary bladder revealed a mid-pole, well-defined, cortical hyperechoic space-occupying lesion (SOL) measuring 7×8×4 mm suggestive of hemangioma. A focal concretion and right-sided mild-to-moderate hydroureteronephrosis were present. Urinary bladder showed circumferentially thickened wall. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography revealed similar findings [
(a) Ultrasonography KUB and (b) computed tomography showing evidence of hydroureteronephrosis.
Q2. What is the most common route of infection in renal tuberculosis?
Ascending spread Hematogenous Lymphatic spread Direct invasion.
Q3. In genitourinary TB, which one of the following is true ?
Sterile pyuria is a consistent finding AFB in early morning sample is always positive. Most common site is pelvis It is the commonest cause of pyelonephritis.
Q4. Golf hole ureter is seen in:-
Ureteric calculus Ureteral polyp Tuberculosis of ureter Retroperitoneal fibrosis.
Q5. Which of the following considered as reliable diagnostic modalities for urinary tract tuberculosis?
ZN staining and cultures isolation for Mtb in urine, PCR for Mtb, Imaging studies, Histopathological evidence for TB All of the above.
Q2. b; Q3. a; Q4. c; Q5. e
Q2.b Genitourinary tuberculosis (GUTB) is mostly secondary to pulmonary infection. Renal TB is a chronic process that can start many years after the initial lung infection.
Q3. a Sterile pyuria is the rule. Tubercle bacilli can be identified on AFB staining of 24 h urine specimen or the first morning urine sample collected on 3 successive days. AFB staining is positive in about 60% of the cases. The most common site of GUTB is kidney. The most common cause of pyelonephritis is
Q4. c Fibrosis due to
Q5. e The most common procedures used for diagnosis of urinary tract tuberculosis include: (1) Urine cytology smears examination, (2) Ziehl–Neelsen (ZN) staining and cultures isolation for Mtb in urine, (3) PCR for Mtb, (4) imaging studies, and (4) histopathological evidence for TB.
GUTB is a term coined by Wildbolz in 1937.[
Urinary tract tuberculosis diagnosis is a challenge due to the insidious onset of UTTB with few non-specific symptoms and atypical presentations, technical difficulties to isolate Mtb, and the long time required to confirm the diagnosis by culture, lack of awareness of physicians, and poor care seeking behavior which lead to difficulty and delay the diagnosis.[
The differential diagnosis of presence of granuloma in urine cytology includes tubercular, fungal, or protozoal infections, foreign body reactions after instrumentation, and bacillus of Calmette-Guerin (BCG)-induced cystitis.[
Presence of epithelioid cell granuloma in urine specimen is a rare finding on urine cytology smears. Kapila and Verma described dispersed or loose clusters of epithelioid histiocytes that often have spindle or carrot shaped nuclei in urinary tuberculosis cases. It is necessary to differentiate between a case of tuberculosis and granulomatous reaction as a result of BCG therapy.[
Multinucleated giant cells can display similar morphological features as umbrella cells, so must be differentiated. Umbrella cells are commonly seen in spontaneously voided urine of patients with renal colic, pronounced distention of the bladder, viral infections, previous radiation, or topical chemotherapy for superficial bladder cancers.[
The presence of AFB in ZN stain or positive urine culture indicates a definitive diagnosis of urinary tuberculosis, however, the same is not excluded based on negativity of ZN staining.
A few studies have reported AFB in urine cytologic specimen previously. In one large series, the presence of bacilluria has been demonstrated in 5.2% of cases. In other studies, AFB positivity by ZN stain on urine smear has been reported variably from 25 to 42%.[
The presence of epithelioid cell granulomas in urine along with Langhans’ type giant cells is highly suggestive of tuberculosis. The presence of AFB on ZN stain on the urine smears confirms the diagnosis, thereby obviating the need for invasive techniques such as cystoscopy and biopsy and allows immediate initiation of antitubercular therapy. Hence, AFB staining in urine smears is mandatory in all cases where tuberculosis is suspected clinically or cytomorphologically.
Tuberculosis continues to be a worldwide disease with predilection for immunocompromised patients and the lower socioeconomic populations. The kidney remains the primary target for disseminated disease. Untreated urinary tuberculosis can cause severe urinary symptoms, renal failure, and death. Effective treatment is dependent on awareness, early recognition, and prompt treatment.
The authors declare that they have no competing interest.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
AFB – Acid-fast bacilli
BCG – Bacillus of Calmette-Guerin
CBNAAT – Cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test
CECT – Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
GUTB – Genitourinary tuberculosis
Mtb –
RT PCR – Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction
SOL – Space-occupying lesion
USG KUB – Ultrasonography for kidney, ureter, and urinary bladder
ZN – Ziehl–Neelsen.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Pancreatic cyst endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration (EUS-FNA): Benign or malignant. Clues to cytological diagnosis with major consequences
EUS-FNA of a 2.3 cm cystic lesion in tail of pancreas of 50 year old American woman showed cytopathologic findings seen in
Relatively hypocellular aspirates showed poorly preserved cells with myxoid debris and focal yellow refractile pigment (in both Pap and Diff Quik stained smears) without epithelial cells, except scant gastric mucosal contamination. [a (x 20)- Pap stain; b (x 20), c and d (x 100)- Diff-Quik stain].
What is your interpretation?
Mucinous cystic lesion (mucinous cystic neoplasm [MCN]/intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm [IPMN]) Pseudocyst Carcinoma with cystic and necrotic changes Cystic neuroendocrine tumor.
b. Pseudocyst.
The differential diagnosis of pancreatic cyst includes neoplastic and non-neoplastic categories. Although the majority of pancreatic cysts are benign, the survival after invasive carcinomas in potentially malignant mucinous cystic lesions either MCN or IPMN is often dismal. Distinction between a true cyst versus a pseudocyst can be challenging. The crucial role of cytology is to properly triage such patients.
EUS-FNA in the current case was relatively hypocellular with abundant thick myxoid material in the background without unequivocal epithelial cells (cyst lining cells). The polyhedral cells showed vacuolated/foamy cytoplasm with small, occasional folded nuclei consistent with reactive foamy histiocytes. Many spindle cells with repair-like pattern were also noted [
Cell-block of transgastric EUS-FNA cytology of cystic lesion in tail of pancreas. The sections showed reactive pancreatic ducts in ill-defined lobular architecture with sclerotic stroma without pancreatic acini. (H and E stained cell-block sections; (a) ×10, (b) ×20, (c) ×40, (d) magnification of cropped area).
Transgastric EUS-FNA cytology of cystic lesion in the tail of pancreas. Focal collection of polyhedral stromal histiocytes should not be confused with epithelial cells with myxoid debris in the background. This may lead to misinterpretation as mucinous cystic lesion (MCN or IPMN). (Diff-Quik stained direct smear, ×40).
The patient had medical history of alcohol abuse, pancreatitis, and ovarian borderline mucinous neoplasm status post-resection presented with upper abdominal pain. Based on the history of borderline mucinous neoplasm of the ovary, the differential interpretation included MCN and IPMN.[
Cystic neuroendocrine tumor would have shown singly scattered plasmacytoid neuroendocrine cells with focal cohesive pattern without significant proportion of myxoid material which was not seen in this case.
Which are the diagnostic features of pancreatic pseudocyst?
Chemical analysis of cyst fluid with high amylase Absence of epithelial cells with repair-like stromal cells Foam cells and cyst debris with myxoid background Presence of yellow crystalline pigment All of the above.
The proper diagnosis of a pancreatic cyst should be based on the combination of pre-procedural findings (clinical and imaging) in conjunction with post-procedural findings (chemical analysis of cyst fluid and cytologic evaluation). The ultimate goal of such diagnostic tests is to distinguish benign cyst with malignant potential (IPMN and MCN) and to evaluate the morphological features of malignancy. The helpful features include the presence or absence of yellow pigment, the proportion and nature of background myxoid contents, and the presence or lack of epithelial lining. The cytologic findings that distinguish pseudocyst from neoplastic cyst with malignant potential are summarized in
Comparison of cytological features of pancreatic pseudocyst and neoplastic mucinous cysts (IPMN, MCN).
Cytological features | Pseudocyst | Neoplastic mucinous cyst (IPMN, MCN) |
---|---|---|
Epithelial lining cells (possibility of GI mucosal contamination especially gastric foveolar mucosa may be a pitfall) | Absent | Present in benign, borderline or malignant |
Proportion (quantity) of/nature (quality) of mucin in the background | Usually absent or low amount (however, myxoid background even with positive histochemical mucin staining such as Alcian blue or Mucicarmine may be a pitfall)[ |
Usually abundant as viscid mucin |
Extracellular pigmented material | Amorphous and crystalline yellow pigment as surrogate marker in a number of cases | Consistently absent |
Presence of cyst debris in the background | Foam cells and fat necrosis debris often present with spindle cells and stromal fragments with repair-like pattern | Foam cells can be present |
Myxoid background in pancreatic pseudocysts may be difficult to distinguish from viscid mucin in mucinous cystic lesions [
Transgastric endoscopic EUS-FNA cytology of cystic lesion in the tail of pancreas. The direct smears showed spindle cells (a and b) and some polyhedral cells (c) with foam cells (d) in the background with myxoid debris (Diff-Quik stain; (a and b) ×20; (c and d) ×40).
What clinical/imaging scenario is typical for pseudocyst compared to neoplastic cyst?
New, non-specific GI complaints with multilocular complex cyst in pancreatic head New, non-specific GI complaints with cystically dilated pancreatic duct History of recurrent pancreatitis with unilocular simple cyst History of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor with a newly identified partially cystic mass.
Pancreatic pseudocyst results from reparative changes secondary to the pancreatic parenchymal injury. Typically, pseudocysts are the result of multiple episodes of acute and chronic pancreatitis. The pseudocyst contents are rich in amylase and/or lipase and lack epithelial lining. History of recurrent pancreatitis with unilocular simple cyst is the classic clinical scenario to trigger the clinical suspicion of a pancreatic pseudocyst. MCN and IPMN, on the other hand, usually present with a multilocular cystic lesion. IPMN communicates with pancreatic ductal system and usually causes pancreatic duct obstruction with dilated duct on imaging (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography [ERCP] or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography [MRCP]). Thus, obstructive jaundice is the usual initial presentation of IPMN.
Serous cystic neoplasm composed numerous small cysts in a honeycomb-like formation of locules ranging from 1 to 20 mm size are typically seen on CT scan as a multicystic, lobulated lesion described as “bunch of grapes” with tendency for central scar and calcification. There is usually lack of the history of pancreatitis. Some pancreatic primary neoplasms can be associated with cystic degeneration, including neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas. However, the presence of a previous neoplasm makes the possibility of a pseudocyst less likely.
What chemical markers are most helpful in distinguishing pseudocyst from neoplastic mucinous cyst?
CEA and amylase Amylase and lipase CA 19-9 and CA-125 Glucose.
Chemical analysis can be an useful ancillary test to support cytopathologic evaluation, The panel of chemical tests to be performed on cyst fluid should be directed based on the clinical suspicion and the amount of fluid aspirated. In general, the most useful markers to distinguish pseudocyst versus neoplastic mucinous cyst are CEA and Amylase. A pseudocyst is, by definition, a collection of amylase-rich fluid. CEA, on the other hand, is a marker of glandular epithelial cells. As a result, a typical pseudocyst would show increased amylase and low level of CEA. A reversed result is expected in neoplastic mucinous cysts. The combination of amylase and lipase is not helpful as both markers are expected to be elevated in most pseudocysts but can also be elevated in neoplastic a number of neoplastic cysts as well. Tumor markers CA 19-9 and CA-125 are typically elevated in neoplastic cysts while they are not elevated in most pseudocysts thus are not helpful in distinguishing between the two.
Pancreatic cystic lesions encompass a wide range of neoplastic and non-neoplastic entities. The recent advances in imaging technologies allowed for an increased identification of pancreatic cysts with up to 19% prevalence in some reports.[
About 80% of pancreatic cystic lesions identified on imaging are non-neoplastic, including pseudocysts.[
Pancreatic cancer is arguably the deadliest cancer. Because of the malignant potential of neoplastic pancreatic cysts, familiarity of the cytomorphologic features of pancreatic pseudocysts are of momentous importance for practicing cytopathologists to make an accurate diagnosis that would affect the trajectory of the patient care. A comprehensive multimodal approach including a combination of clinical, imaging, chemical, cytomorphologic, and molecular findings needs to be applied to reach the final diagnosis.[
The efficacy of EUS-FNA of cystic lesions of pancreas partly depends on the site, size, and characteristics of the target tissue as well as on the expertise, training, and interaction between the endosonographer and the cytopathologist.[
Pseudocyst usually contains inflammatory cells, for example, histiocytes, neutrophils, or both on myxoid background focally in Diff-Quik stained preparation. On a Papanicolaou stain, abundant extracellular mucin with epithelial cells is a finding that strongly suggests a diagnosis of neoplastic mucinous cyst. However, gastrointestinal mucosal contamination (both epithelial cells and mucin) is very common and could be a significant diagnostic pitfall leading to atypical interpretations.[
It is important to consider preparation of CBs from all FNA specimens whenever possible. Specimens that have tissue material and/or blood are suitable for CBs following smear preparation. Recently described method, with ready to use kits allows quantitatively and qualitatively optimum CBs from most of the cytology specimens including EUS-FNA aspirates of pancreatic cystic lesions.[
Not all cysts could be characterized by FNA and cytopathology alone. An elevated CEA level (>192 ng/mL) and v-Ki-ras2 mutation in the aspirate are confirmatory of a mucinous cyst. Overexpression of DNA oncogenes (e.g., GNAS, KRAS) and/ or loss of heterozygosity of tumor suppressor genes (e.g., tumor protein [p53], cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A [p16], ring finger protein 43) detected in cyst fluid also aid to the diagnosis and determination of malignant potential.[
The primary role of cytology is the exclusion of cyst with malignant potential (IPMN and MCN) or malignant cystic lesion. Pseudocysts usually show cytologic features which are frequently nonspecific and are primarily interpreted in correlation with clinical (alcoholism and pancreatitis) and imaging (gland atrophy with calcification and a unilocular cyst without a mural nodule) features with chemical analysis of cyst fluid.
Yellow pigment which continues to be yellow crystalline in Diff-Quik stained smears is important clue as surrogate marker of a pseudocyst. Myxoid background focally should not be confused for viscid and abundant mucin in cysts with malignant potential (IPMN and MCN).
Answers for Question 2 through 4:
2. e
3. c
4. a.
References
Plasmacytoid cells in a thyroid aspirate – Look before you leap
A 60-year-old female with hypothyroidism under treatment presented with neck swelling for 2 months. Ultrasonography showed bulky right thyroid lobe (6.4 × 4.2 × 3.1 cm) with multiple heterogeneous nodules and microcalcification and with multiple necrotic cervical lymph nodes. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of the largest thyroid nodule (3 × 3 × 2 cm) is shown in
(a) Right thyroid FNA. Cellular smear showing predominantly discohesive plasmacytoid cells of variable sizes (Giemsa stain, ×400). (b) Few binucleate and multinucleate cells present. Background shows a few scattered lymphoglandular bodies (Giemsa stain, ×600). (c) Cells have eccentric nuclei with finely stippled chromatin and moderate amount of cytoplasm (Papanicolaou stain, ×400). (d) Discohesive plasmacytoid cells. (Giemsa stain, ×1000).
What is your interpretation?
Hurthle cell neoplasm Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma Medullary carcinoma Metastatic carcinoma
The correct answer is b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Thyroid FNA smears were highly cellular, showing predominantly discohesive plasmacytoid cells of variable sizes [
Cells expressing LCA immunoreactivity (ICC, ×400).
Q1. Which immunochemistry panel will best help in the diagnosis?
Calcitonin, synaptophysin, chromogranin Calcitonin, LCA, CD138 LCA, synaptophysin, CK Thyroglobulin, chromogranin, calcitonin.
Q2. All the following are features of medullary thyroid carcinoma except
Dispersed tumor cells Eccentric nuclei Stippled chromatin Blue cytoplasmic granules on MGG.
Q3. Lymphoglandular bodies are derived from:
Nuclear remnants Stain precipitation Cytoplasmic fragments Immunoglobulin.
Q1.b; Q2.d; Q3.c.
Clinically, a mass in the thyroid and the presence of discohesive plasmacytoid cells in a background containing amyloid/amyloid-like material on cytology smears leads to a diagnosis MTC as it is the most common carcinoma associated with the above two features among thyroid malignancies.[
The presence of LGBs, cartwheel chromatin pattern, and Dutcher bodies can indicate malignant lymphoma and plasmacytoma.[
The diagnosis of lymphomas with plasmacytic morphology in the thyroid can be overlooked and misinterpreted as MTC due to rarity and overlapping cytomorphologic features. Clinical correlation, precise study of the cytological features, and carefully screening the thyroid smears for LGBs in the background are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis, before instituting a definitive therapy.
References
Cytologic evaluation of solitary thyroid nodule in a child
A 8-year-old boy with right sided thyroid lesion (1.5 × 1.5 cm firm, mobile, non-tender which moved with swallowing) since 1 year in addition to 1 × 0.5 cm lesion. Computed tomography scan lesion was heterogeneously enhancing with a few enlarged lymph nodes. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) showed findings seen in
a through e: Aspirates revealed dispersed cells with finely granular cytoplasm showing some pink granules in MGG stained smears and with eccentric nuclei, inconspicuous nucleoli, and few binucleate and multinucleated cells (arrow) with loose aggregates showing nuclear pleomorphism. (a: MGG×200, b: PAP×400, c: MGG×400, d: MGGx400, e: PAP×400), with intranuclear cytoplasmic pseudoinclusions (arrow in ‘c’). f and g: The H and E stained smear (×100) showed homogenous, eosinophilic material which demonstrated yellowish to apple green birefringence under polarizing microscopy. h and i: The cells were immunoreactive for calcitonin (h) and chromogranin (i).
A 8-year-old boy presenting with the right sided thyroid swelling and a separate swelling in the neck (arrows).
What is your interpretation?
Adenomatous nodule with oncocytic features Hurthle cell neoplasm Papillary thyroid carcinoma Medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Answer
The correct cytological interpretation is
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC).
Cytology smears were cellular, comprising predominantly of dispersed cells and few loose cellular aggregates [
Regarding MTC which of the following features is not true It can occur in sporadic or hereditary forms In hereditary form, pattern of inheritance is autosomal dominant It is generally unilateral Lymph node metastasis may be seen at the time of diagnosis. Which of the following statements is true regarding MTC – It is a tumor of parafollicular C-cells It secretes calcitonin Amyloid is found in 80–85% of cases All of the above. Which of the following is/are cytological feature of MTC? Dispersed cellular aspirate with anisocytosis Eccentric nuclei with binucleate and multinucleate forms Cytoplasmic granularity All of the above. Which of the following immunocytochemical stains yield negative results in MTC Thyroglobulin Calcitonin Chromogranin Synaptophysin.
Answers: Q1 – (c), Q2 – (d), Q3 – (d), Q4 – (a).
Q1 (c) – It is generally unilateral. The correct answer is
C. Different clinical forms of MTC are hereditary and sporadic. In hereditary MTC, pattern of inheritance is autosomal dominant. In hereditary MTC, tumor is bilateral in 92–98% of cases and in sporadic MTC, bilaterality is seen in 0–32% of cases. Sporadic MTC shows lymph node metastasis at the time of diagnosis in 40–50% of cases, while in hereditary MTC, it varies from 10% to 38%, in various forms.[
Q2 (d) – All of the above. The correct answer is D. MTC is a malignant tumor showing parafollicular C-cell differentiation. It characteristically secretes calcitonin, but can also produce a variety of other peptide products. Histologically, it shows amyloid in 80–85% of cases, which appears as pink staining amorphous material in the form of globules or massive deposits.[
Q3 (d) – All of the above. The correct answer is D. Cytologically, in MTC, the aspirates are moderately to highly cellular, comprising dispersed cell population with variability in size and shape. The nuclei are often eccentrically placed with in the cytoplasm, giving a plasmacytoid appearance. Multinucleate cells and nuclear pleomorphism may be present with occasional bizzare giant cells. With MayGrunwald-Giemsa stain, a proportion of cells show typically pink, cytoplasmic granularity.[
Q4 (d) – All of the above. The correct answer is A. Immunocytochemically, MTC shows immunoreactivity for calcitonin, chromogranin, and synaptophysin with negativity for thyroglobulin.[
Thyroid swellings are uncommon in the pediatric age group and the reported incidence, in the age group of 8–18 years, is estimated to be 0.05–1.8%, whereas, in adults, the reported incidence ranges between 3.2% and 8%.[
The aspirates of MTC are cellular, comprising dispersed cells to loosely cohesive groups of plasmacytoid, spindle, and/or epithelioid cells.[
The cytomorphological features of MTC are quite distinctive and in most of the cases, definitive diagnosis on FNA can be achieved, which can be confirmed with immunocytochemistry.
References
A case of neck swelling with an unusual presentation
A 25-year-old female with headache for 8 months with nasal obstruction, diplopia, and diffuse mildly tender swelling in the left periorbital and frontal region for 2 months. There was a left cervical, firm, slightly mobile, non-tender 2 × 2 cm swelling. Patient had left lateral rectus palsy with decreased temporal field vision. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) of left cervical swelling was performed [
(a) Aspirates were high cellularity with loosely cohesive clusters and dispersed population of atypical cells (Giemsa; x100), (b) Markedly pleomorphic, oval to spindled cells with plump elongated nuclei, vesicular chromatin, prominent nucleoli and ill- defined cytoplasm (Giemsa; x400), (c) Few reactive lymphoid cells in background (Papanicolaou; x400), (d) The biopsy showed sheets of large atypical cells with brisk mitoses (H and E; x400), inset: nuclear p63 in atypical cells (DAB; x400).
What is you interpretation?
Granulomatous lesion Olfactory neuroblastoma Metastatic nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC), undifferentiated type Metastasis from CNS tumor Malignant melanoma.
The correct cytopathological interpretation is:
C. Metastatic nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC), undifferentiated type.
NPC is a high-grade epithelial malignancy which is usually seen in the elderly age group. Propensity for lymph node metastases particularly jugulodigastric lymph nodes has been commonly reported in the advanced stages.[
The fine-needle aspiration smears were highly cellular comprising of loosely cohesive clusters and dispersed population of markedly pleomorphic oval to spindled cells with plump elongated nuclei, vesicular chromatin, prominent nucleoli, and ill-defined cytoplasm. Few bizarre giant cells with binucleate and multinucleate forms including occasional atypical mitotic figures were noted. Background revealed presence of few reactive lymphoid cells. Based on cytological findings, a possibility of metastatic epithelial malignancy was considered. The differential diagnoses of masses which need to be excluded are summarized in
Cytomorphological differentials of masses in NPC.
Diagnosis | Age | Cytomorphology | Anaplasia | Mitoses | Immunohistochemistry |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Squamous cell carcinoma | 55–65 years | Malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, large nucleoli, with evidence of keratinization | Common | Variable | EMA, CK5/6, CK14, p63+ |
NPC | 40–60 years | Spindly cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent central nucleoli, Background shows lymphoid cells and plasma cells | Common | Frequent | Pan CK, p63, EMA, CK5/6, CK14, CK 19+ |
Sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma | 50–60 years | Medium to large sized cells with scant cytoplasm and well defined borders | Little | Frequent | PanCK, CK 7, CK8, CK 18+, (CK5/6, p63 variable, p40) |
Olfactory neuroblastoma | 2–90 years | Round cells with fragile cytoplasm and delicate chromatin, rosetting present | Variable | Frequent | NSE, synaptophysin, CD 56, chromogranin+, (CD 99 and FLI1-) |
Ewing sarcoma/PNET | 2–20 years | Loosely dispersed small to medium sized cells, scant cytoplasm, fine chromatin, rosetting present | Uncommon | Common | Synaptophysin, CD99, FLI1, Vimentin+ |
Malignant melanoma | 40–70 years | Large plasmacytoid cells with inclusion like nucleoli, melanotic cytoplasm | Common | Frequent | HMB 45, S 100, Vimentin, Melan A+ |
EMA: Epithelial membrane antigen, CK: Cytokeratin, NSE: Neuron-specific enolase, PNET: Primitive neuroectodermal tumor, FLI1: Friend leukemia integration-1, HMB: Human melanoma black, CD: Cluster of differentiation, NPC: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain showed an extra-axial isointense rounded solid mass lesion measuring 2.5 × 2.2 × 1.6 cm in the left temporal lobe invading cavernous sinus and encasing internal carotid artery with mild erosion of medial aspect of petrous temporal bone and extension into nasopharynx [
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography showing a heterogeneously enhancing rounded solid mass lesion involving left temporal lobe, extending into cavernous sinus.
An immediate endoscopic biopsy was done from the nasopharyngeal mass as this was easily accessible in comparison to the intracranial lesion. Paraffin-embedded sections were studied which comprised of multiple fragments partly lined by respiratory epithelium with an underlying tumor composed of sheets of monomorphic round to oval cells with high nucleocytoplasmic ratio, round nuclei, prominent eosinophilic nucleoli, and scant cytoplasm with the presence of brisk mitoses and focal areas of fascicles of spindle cells [
(a) p63 positivity in atypical cells (DAB; x400), (b) some cells reveal CK5/6 positivity (DAB; x400), (c) many cells reveal CK 19 positivity (DAB; x400), (d) cells are negative for CK 7 (DAB; x400).
<1 case/100,000 population 5–10 cases/100,000 population 15–20 cases/100,000 population 20–25 cases/100000 population.
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) association is less frequently seen in NPC, undifferentiated type as compared to keratinizing NPC. Subclassification into undifferentiated and differentiated types has no prognostic significance. Undifferentiated NPC has a high propensity for locally advanced tumor growth and a lower propensity for lymph node spread. HPV infection is not associated with undifferentiated NPC.
CK 5/6 CK 19 Pan CK CK 7.
Answers: Q1-a, Q2-b, Q3-d.
Q1– NPC is an uncommon tumor with annual incidence of <1 case/100,000 population.[
Q2– It has been shown in many studies that non-keratinizing NPC (NK-NPC), especially undifferentiated type has a strong association with EBV infection.[
Q3– NPC stains strongly for p63, panCK, and CK19. Immunohistochemical staining for CK 7 and 14 is negative.[
NPC is a rare malignant disease with complex and unique etiology. It usually presents as nasal obstruction or cervical lymphadenopathy as an early manifestation. In advanced cases, tumor can invade the orbital fissure or the orbital apex and can result in compressive optic neuropathy or direct infiltration of the optic nerve.[
This case is interesting from pathologist’s point of view because of the broad differential in the head and neck area. Histopathological findings and IHC played a key role here to help us reach a definite diagnosis.
The present case highlights the importance of ocular symptoms as the rare and first manifestation of NPC. We should be aware that NPC should be added to the list of differential diagnosis in patients with intracranial disease where the exact location of primary tumor is unclear.
The authors declare that they have no competing interest.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for the appropriate portions of the content of this article. SJ: Conceptualization, drafting of the manuscript, literature review. MK: Data acquisition, revising it critically for important intellectual content. MB: Critical review, finalization of the manuscript. Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is a quiz case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (IRB).
CK – Cytokeratin
EBV – Epstein–Barr virus
FNA – Fine-needle aspiration
FNAC – Fine-needle aspiration cytology
IHC – Immunohistochemistry
K-NPC – Keratinizing nasopharyngeal carcinoma
NK – Non-keratinizing
NPC – Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a double-blind model (authors are blinded for reviewers and vice versa) through automatic online system.
References
An unusual breast malignancy with central cystic lesion: Important related pitfall
A 43-year-old female was referred for fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of two lumps in the left breast noticed 4 months back. On examination, there was a lump in the upper outer quadrant, 3 cm in diameter while another lump was felt in the central quadrant, 6 × 5 cm in size. The larger lump was smooth, soft to firm in consistency. It was not fixed to the overlying skin or underlying muscle. Mammogram was reported as BIRADS 3. An USG-guided FNA was performed from both the lumps. Cytologic features of the FNA from the larger lump are shown in
Aspiration cytology smear from larger lump shows occasional cluster of benign keratinized squamous cells (a, Giemsa x100). Papanicolaou-stained smear of the same shows benign-appearing squamous cells (b, x100).
What is the cytological interpretation on FNA smears of the larger lump?
Cystic lesion with squamous metaplasia Squamous metaplasia secondary to infarcted fibroadenoma Infarcted phyllodes tumor with squamous metaplasia Squamous cell carcinoma of the breast
The correct cytological interpretation is:
a. Cystic lesion with squamous metaplasia.
USG-guided FNA from the smaller lump (upper outer quadrant) showed features of proliferative breast disease with the presence of stromal fragments and clusters of ductal epithelial cells showing focal mild anisonucleosis in a background of bipolar myoepithelial cells [
Histopathological examination revealed features of a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) comprising almost 100% of the tumor area [
Histopathological section shows the invasive squamous cell carcinoma component (a, H&E x100). A central cystic zone with squamous metaplasia (sq meta) and transformation to SCC and infiltration denoted as I is also seen (b, H&E x 40). The focus shown in ‘b’ is highlighted by immunohistochemistry for CK5/6 (c, Labeled Streptavidin-Biotin method x 40).
Q1. The cytomorphologic features on FNA of smaller breast lump are suggestive of:
Infiltrating duct carcinoma of breast Fibrocystic disease of the breast Proliferative breast lesion Ductal carcinoma
Q2. On immunohistochemistry of a breast lesion, which of the following suggest a diagnosis of SCC?
Negative for CK 7 expression Negative for ER PR and HER2 Neu Positive for Pan-CK and CK5/6 expression All of the above.
Q3. Which of the following possibilities should be considered in a FNA of breast mass showing atypical squamous cells
Infarcted fibroadenoma Epidermoid cyst Phyllodes tumor with metaplasia of canalicular lining cells SCC All of the above.
Answers to the quiz questions:
Q1. The correct answer is c (proliferative breast lesion)
Q2. The correct answer is d (all of the above)
Q3. The correct answer is e (all of the above).
The explanations of these questions follow in the next section.
Primary SCCB is very rare, accounting for <1% of all invasive breast carcinomas. There have been only sporadic case reports and a few mini-case series reported in the literature.[
Macia
Cytologic diagnosis of SCCB has been cited in the literature as rare case reports only.[
In the current case, the tumor had cystic component. However, the cyst fluid revealed benign-appearing squamous cells with inflammatory cells, leading to a diagnostic pitfall on cytology. This case highlights the problem of sampling artifact, if enough sampling is not performed from all suspicious areas of the cystic lesions. At least three adequately cellular aspirates should be sampled from the periphery of the cystic lesions with ill-defined periphery. The sensitivity and specificity of FNA in diagnosis of breast masses have been variably reported as 94–99% and 99–100%, respectively.[
FNA forms an integral component of the triple test used widely in the evaluation of breast lesions. The diagnostic accuracy of triple test has been reported to be 100% if all the three tests are concordant for the benign or malignant diagnosis.[
Mere presence of atypical squamous cells in the FNA smears is not sufficient to confer a diagnosis of SCCB since similar cells may be seen in epidermoid cysts, metaplasia secondary to infarction of fibroadenoma or papilloma, phyllodes tumor with intracanalicular metaplastic lining cells, and subareolar abscess (Zuska’s disease).[
The optimal therapy for SCCB is surgery (breast conserving or mastectomy) with or without axillary lymphadenectomy. The role of post-operative adjuvant chemo or radiation therapy is as yet not known.[
Primary SCC of the breast is a rare subtype of breast cancer. The clinical, mammographic, and aspiration cytologic features of this tumor may be misleading, especially in cases presenting with a cystic mass. Presence of benign-appearing squamous cells in cystic lesions should suggest better sampling to detect associated invasive carcinoma. This case highlights the problem of sampling artifact, if enough sampling is not performed from all suspicious areas of the cystic breast lesions with squamous cells. At least three adequately cellular aspirates should be sampled from the periphery of the cystic lesions with ill-defined periphery.
References
An uncommon diagnosis in pleural effusion cytology
A 50-year-old man presented with complaints of breathlessness of 3-month duration. Computed tomogram (CT) scan of thorax showed a large 4 × 3 cm, predominantly cystic mass in his left anterosuperior hemithorax with necrotic lymph nodes and left-sided severe pleural effusion. Five hundred milliliters of pleural fluid were tapped and cytology examination was performed for the workup. The cytological picture is shown in
(a) Aggregates of tumor cells with round to oval morphology, moderate pleomorphism, and prominent nucleoli (Papanicolaou × 200) (b) Groups of tumor cels embedded in myxoid stroma highlighted by metachromatic magenta (May Grunwald Giemsa × 200) (c) Ultrasonography scan of thorax shows moderate-to-severe left pleural effusion with internal echoes (d) Pleural fluid cell block shows groups of tumor cells within amphophilic hyaline stroma (H and E × 200).
What is your diagnosis?
Reactive mesothelial cells Metastatic adenocarcinoma Positive for malignancy, possibly myxoid chondrosarcoma Positive for malignancy, cannot characterize further.
The correct cytological interpretation is C. Positive for malignancy, possibly myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Grossly, the fluid sample was straw in color. Centrifugation was done at 2000 rpm for 10 min. The supernatant was discarded and the sediment was picked up with the help of a cotton-tipped applicator stick and smears were prepared by rolling the swab stick on glass slides. The smears were fixed in 100% methanol and stained by the routine Papanicolaou (Pap) and May Grunwald Giemsa (MGG) methods.
The smears were cellular and showed atypical cells dispersed singly, in cords and small aggregates with varying amounts of granular, myxoid, and chondromyxoid stroma. The atypical cells were predominantly round to oval in morphology, displaying mild-to-moderate pleomorphism with prominent nucleoli. The cytoplasm was finely vacuolated. Occasionally, the cells showed “rhabdoid” morphology. Atypical cells did not show any specific features of epithelial differentiation. Myxoid stroma was further highlighted by MGG stain as bright magenta (metachromasia). Few reactive mesothelial cells, many red blood cells, neutrophils, and lymphocytes were also noted.
The patient had a history of myxoid chondrosarcoma of his left thigh, which was excised 5 years ago, following which, he received six cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy.
The cytomorphology of the abnormal cells led to the suspicion of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma (EMC) and was supported by the clinicoradiological findings. In the given clinical context of known history of EMC of the left thigh and lung mass, pleural fluid cytology was suggestive of metastatic EMC and biopsy/cell block confirmation was advised.
Cell block was prepared from pleural fluid which showed tumor cells arranged in cords within an amphophilic hyaline stroma, consistent with metastatic EMC from a known primary in the left thigh.
Following cytology, a CT-guided biopsy of the lung mass was performed and histopathological examination showed features consistent with metastatic EMC, in a known case. By immunohistochemistry (IHC), the tumor cells were diffusely and strongly positive for neuron-specific enolase (NSE).
Considering the advanced stage of the disease and dismal prognosis, the patient was advised symptomatic treatment.
Cytologic examination of pleural fluid is a simple, noninvasive, cost-effective, diagnostic modality used to detect abnormal cells that exfoliate in the fluid. In most of the cases, cytology can recognize the origin of a neoplasm presenting in the fluid on the basis of its morphologic features so as to exclude a second possible primary tumor. When malignant cells are present in the fluid, a definite diagnosis can be made in approximately 90% of the cases.[
Cytological findings of EMC obtained from fine-needle aspiration or imprint smears have been reported previously. However, the cytopathologic features of this rare sarcoma in effusion have not been frequently reported. To the best of our knowledge, only one case report on EMC diagnosed in pleural fluid in a patient presenting with a thigh mass has been published.[
EMC is a rare soft-tissue sarcoma, first described by Stout and Vernar,[
Detection of tumor cells in the pleural fluid is not possible unless the cells exfoliate in the fluid in large numbers.
In effusion cytology, at times, there is considerable challenge in differentiating reactive mesothelial cells from adenocarcinoma and other metastatic tumors. It is a critical situation, indicative of a high-stage disease. The reported literature on the cytologic features of sarcomas in serous effusions is very scanty. Sarcomas tend to lose the tissue arrangement or the stromal patterns as observed in fine-needle aspiration specimen.[
Differential diagnoses include reactive mesothelial cells and metastatic adenocarcinoma cells. Reactive mesothelial cells show slightly enlarged nuclei with smooth and regular nuclear membrane, fine chromatin pattern, and moderate amount of cytoplasm. In this case, the atypical cells displayed unequivocal features of malignancy, including enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular nuclear border, and anisonucleosis. Therefore, the possibility of these cells being reactive mesothelial cells was not considered.
Metastatic adenocarcinoma is the most common diagnosis in effusion cytology. In most cases of adenocarcinoma, tight clusters of tumor cells are observed, including overlapping three-dimensional clusters, papillaroid formations, glandular differentiation, or “signet ring” cell morphology. Extracellular or intracellular mucinous material may be seen in certain cases. Furthermore, the tumor cells exhibit enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei with irregular nuclear membrane, coarse and clumped chromatin pattern, and anisonucleosis. However, the present case did not reveal any of the above features.
Mucinous material in Pap staining appears usually as pale purple amorphous material, while in MGG, it may appear either colorless or pink. The present case showed abundant extracellular ground substance (myxochondroid matrix). This might resemble mucinous material and can be mistaken for a diagnosis of adenocarcinoma. The metachromatic (magenta) effect of the matrix on MGG stain was a useful clue toward the diagnosis.
In the present case, the characteristic features included hypercellular smears with variable tumor cell arrangement and the presence of abundant metachromatic myxoid/ chondromyxoid stroma in the background. Small clusters and sheets of markedly pleomorphic cells with vacuolated cytoplasm, enlarged round to oval nuclei, and small nucleoli were noted. In view of previous history of myxoid chondrosarcoma, and presence of malignant cells amidst abundant myxochondroid matrix, a diagnosis of metastatic EMC was rendered. Kumar
Sarcomas do not exhibit a specific immunophenotype. Application of immunocytochemical marker for EMC is not helpful. As per review of literature, diffuse positivity for vimentin and S-100 is of limited value in identifying an EMC; the expression for NSE supports the hypothesis of a possible neural or neuroendocrine differentiation recently reported in a subset of EMC, providing a new insight into their histogenetic nature. Hence, the diagnosis of these tumors in serous effusions relies mainly on morphologic evaluation[
The stromal matrix in EMC in MGG stained smears appear as Magenta Purple Colorless Pale pink. For exact tumor subtyping in effusion, the requirements include Detailed clinical history Pap and MGG stained smears Cell block and IHC All of the above. Chromosomal rearrangements seen in EMC include. t(9;22) t(10;11) t(8;14) t(11;22).
Q1: A; Q2: D; Q3: A.
During the metastatic workup, effusion cytology can provide a valuable and accurate means of diagnosis. The presence of sarcoma in effusions, including EMC, is extremely rare. Tumor cells with characteristic stroma, cytologic, and immunomorphologic features, in combination with clinical history, are useful in arriving at a correct diagnosis.
References
Detection of parasite by fine-needle aspiration cytology on unstained smear
A 38-year-old male patient presented with a swelling on the left upper arm, measuring 4 × 3 cm from past 7 years. FNAC was performed using a 22-G needle. On aspiration, drop of fluid was aspirated and air-dried smears were prepared. Before submitting the smears for staining, as a routine protocol unstained smears were evaluated microscopically for cellular adequacy [
(a) Unstained FNA smears showing fibrillar and granular parenchyma partially obscured by uneven tegument and subtegument thrown into folds (multiple arrowheads) 100×. (b) FNA smears showing blue nuclei concentrated in the areas where the parenchyma is covered by tegument and subtegument. MGG stain 100×. (c) Other areas reveal bladder wall fragment with blue nuclei. MGG stain 400×.
Echinococcus Cysticercus cellulosae Wuchereria bancrofti Enterobius vermicularis.
Answer
The correct cytological interpretation is
b. Cysticercus cellulosae.
Microscopic examination revealed the bladder wall fragment of cysticercus appearing as a granular, loose fibrillary sheet-like structure, partially obscured by a knobby undulating layer comprising tegument, and subtegument, which could be very well-identified in the unstained smears [
Cysticercosis is a parasitic disease caused by the larval stage of Taenia solium (Cysticercus cellulosae). The disease is more common in endemic areas of Central and South America, India, China, Southeast Asia, and subSaharan Africa.[
On cytology, cysticercosis can be differentiated from other parasite. In Echinococcus, the bladder wall is thick and laminated, while, it is thin and membranous in cysticercosis. Multiple small scolices are seen in Echinococcus, whereas single scolex is seen in cysticercus. In coenurus, multiple protoscolices are seen, which can be distinguished from the cysticercus, which have a single scolex.[
Recognition of cysticercus on unstained smears is of some importance as numerous smears may be generated from the aspirated fluid, only a minority of which may harbor the diagnostic parasite fragments. Selection of appropriate smears for staining is crucial, if non-diagnostic reports are to be curtailed.
Following statement is true regarding cysticercosis Is caused by larvae of Taenia solium “Embryonated eggs” are consumed by human host in drinking water or with vegetables as accidental intermediate host Disease most commonly involves subcutaneous and muscle tissue, followed by brain and eye All of the above. Answer is d. For the life cycle of taenia solium, the intermediate host is Dog Sheep Pig Horse. Answer is c. The aspirate of cysticercosis can reveal which of the following Fragments of bladder wall Scolex and hooklet Calcareous spherules All of the above. Answer is d. Which of the following statement is true regarding the cytomorphological feature of cysticercosis Size of the hooklet is 15–40 microns Bladder wall is thin and membranous Multiple small scolices are observed No inflammatory response is seen. Answer is b.
Fine-needle aspiration has a pivotal role in evaluating subcutaneous nodules caused by cysticercosis. Although stained FNA smears reliably demonstrate cysticercosis, rapid on site evaluation of unstained smears can also permit confident cytodiagnosis, if the cytologist is familiar with it.
References
Subcutaneous nodule in the chest – Uncommon presentation of a common disease
A 19-year-old female presented to us with a midline swelling in the upper chest for 6 months. Physical examination revealed a reddish-brown nodular midline swelling in the upper chest measuring 0.8 × 0.8 cm. Ultrasound findings suggested a well-defined subcutaneous swelling measuring 10 × 0.8 mm in size. Underlying bony cortex was intact with no erosion. X-ray chest revealed no abnormality. Fine-needle aspiration from the subcutaneous swelling showed moderately cellular smears, with the presence of myeloid cells, erythroid cells, histiocytes, and megakaryocytes. Erythroid and myeloid series cells were seen in different stages of maturation [
(a) Fine-needle aspiration smear showing moderate cellularity (40×, Giemsa stain), (b and c) Smears showing myeloid cells, erythroid cells in different stages of maturation (200×, Giemsa stain), (d) Smear showing hematopoietic cells with a megakaryocyte (400×, Giemsa stain).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Leukemia cutis Chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm Extramedullary hematopoiesis Primary myelofibrosis.
Please see the next page for answer and additional discussion on the topic
Answer
Q1: c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Extramedullary hematopoiesis is defined as the production of blood outside the normal limits of the bone marrow.[
Leukemia cutis is the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes or their precursors into the epidermis, the dermis, or the subcutis, resulting in clinically identifiable cutaneous lesions. Leukemia cutis may follow, precede, or occur concomitantly with the diagnosis of systemic leukemia. No blast cells were noted in the present case.
Diagnosis of myeloproliferative neoplasms needs hematological correlation.
Q2. Which of the following is true about EMH in case of thalassemia?
Skin is the most common site Treatment is surgical removal of the mass Usually occurs in liver, spleen, and lymph node Presence of megakaryocytes is must for the diagnosis.
Q3. Which of the following is false about EMH?
Cutaneous lesions manifest as macules, papules, or nodules Divided as para osseous and extraosseous Cutaneous EMH is not seen in congenital infections May represent a compensatory response to longstanding hypoxia.
Q4. Which of the following is not a microscopic feature of cutaneous EMH?
May resemble a fibrohistiocytic tumor Dermal infiltrate predominantly composed of erythroid and myeloid elements Chloroacetate esterase stain highlights the myeloid elements Megakaryocytes are positive for glycophorin A immunostain.
On further evaluation, patient was a diagnosed case of Beta-thalassemia major 8 years back. She has been treated with monthly blood transfusion and iron chelation therapy. She had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis, 9 years back for which she took category-1 anti-tubercular therapy. Per abdomen examination revealed palpable spleen crossing the umbilicus. Hematologic studies disclosed the following values: hemoglobin, 8.8 g/dl; WBC count, 11,200/mm3; with 64% polymorphs, 31% lymphocytes, 3% eosinophils and 2% monocytes; 6 nRBCs/100 WBCs; and platelet count, 150,000/mm3. Peripheral blood smears showed marked anisopoikilocytosis with microcytes, tear drop cells, target cells, and hypochromia [
(a) A reddish-brown nodular midline subcutaneous swelling in the upper chest measuring 0.8 × 0.8 cm, (b) Peripheral smear showing marked anisopoikilocytosis with microcytes, tear drop cells, target cells, and hypochromia (200×, Leishman stain).
(a) Megakaryocyte (arrow) (1000×, Giemsa stain), (b) Erythroid Island with normoblast (arrow) (1000×, Giemsa stain), (c) myeloid cell (arrow) (1000×, Giemsa stain).
Answers
Q2 – c. Usually occurs in liver, spleen, and lymph node
Q3 – c. Cutaneous EMH is not seen in congenital infections
Q4 – d. Megakaryocytes are positive for glycophorin A immunostain.
During embryonic life, erythropoiesis normally takes place in this fashion, with blood production occurring in the liver, lymph nodes, and spleen. At birth, extramedullary hematopoiesis ceases and blood production shifts to the bone marrow. However extramedullary blood-producing connective tissue cells are still present in the child and adult, which, under certain circumstances, can once again become active. In this condition, foci of extramedullary hematopoiesis may arise within soft tissues.[
EMH in Thalassemia usually occurs at liver, spleen, kidney, lymph nodes, and paravertebral region.[
The cutaneous EMH lesions can manifest in a variety of ways: as macules, papules, nodules, and even ulcers. Several cases have been described of angioma-like cutaneous lesions and others with blisters and bleeding.[
Cytologically EMH composed of a combination of myeloid, erythroid, and megakaryocyte precursors. The erythroid precursors predominate in children, whereas megakaryocytes predominate in adults.[
EMH can be divided into two type: The first show para osseous foci resulting from herniation of medullary tissue from the adjacent bone as it is seen in hemolytic anemia where the marrow is hyperactive and a second type which shows extra osseous extramedullary hematopoiesis with foci in soft tissues. If the “mass” is in a para osseous location, CT or plain radiographs should be obtained to look for areas of adjacent bone destruction and for evidence of marrow expansion.[
It has been described in many types of severe anemia, polycythemia, leukemia, lymphoma, hyperparathyroidism, rickets, chronic infections, and following radiation exposure, poisoning, or neoplastic replacement of the bone marrow.[
However, it has been reported nearly in every organ, but is frequently seen in hepatosplenic areas which can potentially produce fetal hemoglobin. Non-hepatosplenic EMH has been reported in numerous sites, such as lymph nodes, pleura, thyroid, maxillary antrum, the falx cerebri, pericardium, skin, synovium of joints, lungs, thymus, breast, and the dura of the brain and spinal cord.[
Specific treatment may not be required unless EMH is accompanied by symptoms. Treatment options for thalassemia patients with EMH depend on the location and mass effect symptom and include surgery, radiation, blood transfusion, and hydroxyurea or various combinations thereof.[
In the present case, the patient is a young female presenting with subcutaneous swelling without underlying bony connection. FNAC revealed extramedullary hematopoiesis containing hemopoietic elements of all the three lineages. So far in the literature, cutaneous EMH had not been described in thalassemia; our case is the first case with cutaneous EMH in thalassemia patient.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article. All authors read and approved the final manuscript. Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from institutional review board (IRB) (or its equivalent).
CT – Computed tomography
EMH – Extramedullary hematopoiesis
FNAC – Fine needle aspiration cytology
nRBC – Nucleated red blood cells
TM – Thalassemia Major
WBC – White blood cells.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
A small round blue cell tumor in urine: cytomorphology and differential diagnosis
This was a male patient in his late 70s presented with hematuria. He had Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) of the right flank skin 5 years ago; diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) involving lymph nodes in the neck, retroperitoneum, and groin 2 years ago; and conventional prostatic adenocarcinoma 1 year ago. Cystoscopy showed a mass at the right side of the bladder wall. Bladder washing and biopsy were performed. The urine cytology and cell block sections showed scattered atypical cells [
Papanicolaou stained ThinPrep slide shows isolated MCC cells (arrows and inset) with high N/C ratios, irregular nuclear contours, stippled chromatin and scant basophilic cytoplasm; in a background of abundant neutrophils and reactive urothelial cells (×400).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma High-grade urothelial carcinoma Metastatic Marked Cell Carcinoma (MCC).
The correct interpretation is E: Metastatic MCC.
Cytopathologic examination of the urine revealed scattered discohesive atypical cells of a small round blue cell tumor, in a background of abundant neutrophils and reactive urothelial cells [
Cell block sections showing the MCC cells (arrows) mixed with inflammatory cells (×400).
Due to the clinical history of multiple malignancies, immunohistochemical studies were performed on both the cell block and the bladder biopsy. Tumor cells are negative for CD20, which makes DLBCL unlikely. Tumor cells are negative for PSA, which does not support metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma. Tumor cells are also negative for P63 and GATA3, excluding primary bladder squamous cell carcinoma and high-grade urothelial carcinoma, respectively. The atypical cells were positive for CK20, MCPyv, and SATB2 [
The tumor cells show immunostain positivity for CK20 (a, cell block, ×400), MCPyv CM2B4 clone (b, biopsy, ×200), and SATB2 (c, biopsy, ×200), confirming the diagnosis of MCC.
Q2. Which virus is associated with MCC?
BK virus JC virus MCPyv SV40 HPV.
Q3. Which of the following immunostain results are most likely seen in a metastatic MCC?
Synaptophysin+, Chromogranin+, TTF-1-, SATB2+, CK20+ Synaptophysin+, Chromogranin+, TTF-1+, SATB2- , CK20- Synaptophysin-, Chromogranin-, GATA3+, SATB2- , CK20+ Synaptophysin-, Chromogranin-, TTF-1-, SATB2-, CD20+ Synaptophysin+, Chromogranin+, FLI-1+, SATB2-, CK20-.
Q4. When a malignant small round blue cell tumor is seen in urine cytology, the differential diagnosis should include:
Small cell carcinoma Metastatic MCC Lymphoma High-grade urothelial carcinoma All of above.
Answers to additional quiz questions
Q2: C Q3: A Q4: E.
Q2: More than 80% of the MCCs are associated with MCPyv infection. MCPyv is a non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. Although it belongs to polyomavirus family, it is distantly related to SV40 virus and has less cross-reaction with SV40 antibody (clone PAb416) than BK and JC viruses. A more specific antibody (clone CM2B4) has better detection rate of MCPyv.[
Q3: Metastatic MCC in urine shows typical neuroendocrine tumor cytomorphology, such as high N/C ratios and stippled chromatin. Immunohistochemical studies can aid the diagnosis. Most MCCs are positive for CK20 with membranous and/or perinuclear dot-like staining pattern. MCC is usually positive for one or multiple neuroendocrine markers, such as synaptophysin, chromogranin, CD56, and neuron-specific enolase. SATB2 is a nuclear matrix-associated protein expressing in Merkel cells and has been recently recognized as a highly specific marker for MCC[
Q4: In urine cytology, when atypical small round blue cells are seen, the differential diagnosis includes but not limited to small cell carcinoma (SmCC), lymphoma, and high-grade urothelial carcinoma.
Primary SmCC of the urinary bladder is rare and is morphologically indistinguishable from metastatic SmCC or metastatic MCC. In addition, primary SmCC, metastatic SmCC, and metastatic MCC all express neuroendocrine markers, which make differentiation extremely difficult.
Coexistence of urothelial carcinoma will favor primary SmCC in the urinary bladder. TTF-1 immunostain positivity favors SmCC over metastatic MCC. On the other hand, SATB2 positivity will support metastatic MCC. Of course, correlation with clinical history and imaging studies is very important.
Lymphoma in urine shows single atypical cells with high N/C ratios, hyperchromatic nuclei, and scant cytoplasm. Depending on the subtypes, the sizes of lymphoma cells could vary markedly. Lymphoma cells tend to have more clumped chromatin than MCC cells. When cytomorphological differences are subtle, immunohistochemical study and/ or flow cytometry are helpful in differentiation. However, some MCCs show positivity for TdT and CD10. Therefore, a multimarker panel is recommended.[
High-grade urothelial carcinoma can have variable cytomorphological appearances, so it should always be considered in the differential diagnosis. About half of the MCCs show P63 positivity, mimicking urothelial carcinoma immunohistochemically.[
In our case, in addition to the scattered tumor cells, the urine sample also showed marked mixed inflammation. For patients with bladder tumors, it is not uncommon to have concurrent infections. Effort should be made to avoid neglecting the rare tumor cells in the background of numerous inflammatory cells and reactive urothelial cells.
MCC, previously known as trabecular carcinoma/sweat gland carcinoma/Toker’s tumor, was first described in 1972 by Toker.[
MCC is more common in males, with the most common primary site being head and neck. Heath
The treatment for primary cutaneous MCC is surgery with optional sentinel lymph node biopsy and radiotherapy. Metastatic MCC has a bad prognosis. Recently, immunotherapy with PD-1 or PD-L1 inhibitors has been used to treat metastatic MCC. Avelumab, a PD-L1 inhibitor, is approved by FDA in 2017 for the treatment of metastatic MCC in adult and pediatric patients 12 years and older.[
The presence of small round blue cell tumors in urine has a broad differential diagnosis, including but not limited to small cell carcinoma, lymphoma, and high-grade urothelial carcinoma. Metastatic MCC, although rare, should be considered in the differentials, especially if the patient is elderly with a history of skin MCC.
References
A huge vulval cyst with iliac lymph node enlargement – A unique presentation of a rare tumor
A 32-year-old female presented with abdominal pain, right labial mass, and right iliac lymph node enlargement for 4 years, to the gynecology department. On examination, a fluctuant, polypoid mass involving the right labium majus was noted and clinical diagnosis of vulval cyst was made. Her MRI findings revealed a well-defined 10.0 × 10.0 × 5.0 cm right labial lesion with heterogeneous signal intensity. It revealed hyperintense signal with areas of hypointensity on T2 and predominantly hypointense on T1, without any calcifications. Another altered signal intensity lesion measuring 5 × 5 cm was seen along the right iliac vessels, suggestive of the right iliac lymphadenopathy. USG-guided fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of the right iliac lymph node was performed and slides were stained with PAP, H&E, and MGG [
FNAC of the right iliac lymph node (Arrowhead-plexiform vasculature, Arrow- lipoblast), PAP, ×100 (original).
Angiomyxoma Myxofibrosarcoma Myxoid dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans Myxoid liposarcoma.
Question 1 answer – d-Myxoid liposarcoma.
Smears made from FNA of the right iliac lymph node showed tissue fragments with myxoid matrix and plexiform vascular network [
MRI well-defined 10.0 × 10.0 × 5.0 cm right vulval mass showing heterogeneous signal intensity, hypointense on T1 and hyperintense on T2.
Gross evaluation revealed solid, multilobulated cut surface with grayish-white, fleshy and gelatinous areas with foci of hemorrhage [
Solid, grayish-brown multilobulated mass with grayish-white fleshy and gelatinous areas (original).
Hypocellular areas showing round cells admixed with lipoblasts (arrowhead) embedded in prominent myxoid stroma, rich in arborizing, plexiform capillary vasculature (arrow). (H and E, ×400) (original) Inset=lipoblast).
Extensive grossing was done and then slides were stained with H&E. Sections from labial mass showed nodular lesion with hypocellular and hypercellular areas. Hypocellular areas show uniform round to oval-shaped cells admixed with variable number of univacuolated to multivacuolated lipoblasts embedded in prominent myxoid stroma, rich in arborizing chicken wire capillary vasculature [
Hypercellular areas showing predominantly sheets of round to ovoid cells. (H and E, ×100) (original).
Q2 – Plexiform blood vessels are frequently seen in all except
MLS Superficial angiomyxoma Lipoblastoma Myxofibrosarcoma.
Q3 – Unimultivacuolated cells with scalloping of nuclei are the feature of
Foamy macrophage Pseudolipoblast Lipoblast Adipocyte.
Q4 – Most common translocation involving MLS is?
t(12;16)(q13;p11) t(7;16)(q33;p11) t(17;22)(q21.3;q13.1) t(11;12)(q23;q15).
Q2 (d); Q3 (c); Q4 (a).
Q2 (d) – Plexiform vessels are thin branching vessels usually seen in MLS, superficial angiomyxoma, and lipoblastoma. Myxofibrosarcomas, meanwhile, show thick walled, curvilinear vessels with perivascular alignment of tumor cells.
Q3 (c) – Criteria for diagnostic lipoblast include – hyperchromatic, indented or sharply scalloped nucleus with lipid-rich droplets in cytoplasm, and an appropriate histological background. Multivacuolated cells distended with hyaluronic acid (pseudolipoblast) can be seen in myxofibrosarcoma.
Q4 (a) – The entire range of myxoid/round cell liposarcoma is genetically tied to recurrent rearrangement of DDIT3 that partners with FUS in >95% of cases with a resulting FUSDDIT3 fusion [t(12;16) (q13;p11)] or partners with EWSR1 in the remaining cases with a resulting EWSR1-DDIT3 fusion [t(12;22) (q13;q12)]. Identification of either the FUS-DDIT3 or EWSR1-DDIT3 transcript is considered both highly sensitive and specific for myxoid/round cell liposarcoma, allowing its distinction from morphologically similar neoplasms.
Vulvar sarcomas account for only 1–3% of all vulvar malignancies and the most frequent primary vulvar sarcoma is leiomyosarcoma.[
Clinical profile of seven cases of MLS of vulva (original).
Study | Age (years) | Site | Duration | Clinical diagnosis | Maximum size (cm) | Management | Outcome |
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Brooks and LiVolsi[ |
15 | Vulvar perineum, recurred on the left posterior medial thigh | 20 months | Soft-tissue sarcoma | 18 | Wide excision; local recurrence as round cell/high-grade myxoid liposarcoma 20 months later treated by chemotherapy | DOD* |
Donnellan and Moodley[ |
26 | Left labium majus et minor | 4 years | Bartholin cyst | 10 | Local excision followed by reexcision | NED+ 9 m |
Wu and Tarn[ |
45 | Right labium majus | 72 months | Lipoma | 7 | Local excision; reexcision of 6 cm recurrence 16 months later | NED, 28 m |
Schoolmeester |
34 | Left vulval mass | 11 months | Unknown | 11.7 | Local excision | NED, 28 m |
Baek |
33 | Bilateral perineum | 4 months | Unknown | Wide excision | NED, 2 yr | |
Kwak |
37 | Bilateral vulval mass | 3 weeks | Unknown | 20 and 15 | Local excision with radiotherapy | NED, 44 m |
Present case | 32 | Right labium majus | 4 years | Cyst | 8.5 | Wide excision | NED, 6 m |
DOD: Died of disease, +NED: No evidence of disease
MLS of vulva can be mistaken clinically as benign because of their rare location and presentation, which can lead to delayed treatment.[
Histologically, MLS can be confused with other myxoid tumors more common in the vulva such as aggressive angiomyxomas, botryoid embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, myxoid dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, myxofibrosarcoma, and myxoid leiomyosarcoma [
Differential diagnosis of myxoid lesions of vulva.
Differential diagnosis | Age | Location | Gross | Microscopy | IHC | Genetics | ||||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Growth pattern | Cellularity | Morphology | LB | Blood vessels | Background | Mitotic activity | ||||||
Angio |
Reproductive age (30 years) | Superficial and deep | Polypoidal, partly circumscribed |
Infiltrative | Low | Spindle and stellate cells with small round hyperchromatic nuclei | -nt | Small thin walled to large hyalinized blood vessels | Myxoid with fine collagen fibrils | Rare absent | CD34 |
t(12;21) |
Botryoid RMS | Children (<10 years) | Mucosa lined hollow organs | Polypoidal with clusters of small sessile or pedunculated nodules | Polypoidal | Mode-rate | Subepithelial condensation of tumor cells (cambium layer) comprising of primitive small round cells, stellate cells and rhabdomyoblast | -nt | - | Myxoid | Low to mode rate | Vimentin |
Loss of heterozygosity chromosome 11p15.5 |
Myxoid DFSP | Young-middle-aged adults | Superficial | Multinodular cutaneous masses, gray-white cut surface with gelatinous areas | Diffuse infiltrative | Mode-rate | Uniform spindle cells with plump elongate nuclei arranged in storiform pattern | -nt | Prominent thin-walled vessels | Myxoid | Low to mode |
CD34 | t(17;22) |
Myxoid |
Middle to older | Deep soft tissue | Well-demarcated |
Ill defined | Mode-rate | Elongated spindle cells with blunt-ended nuclei arranged in long dissecting fascicles | -nt | Not seen | Myxoid | Low | SMA, CALDESMON | Complex with genetic instability |
MFS | Elderly (60–80 yrs) | Superficial and deep | Multiple gelatinous nodules (superficial) |
Multi |
Moderate | Plump, spindle or stellate cells having large atypical hyperchromatic nucleus | Pseudolipo |
Curvilinear, elongated blood vessels with perivascular condensation of tumor cells | Myxoid | High | MSA, SMA | Complex karyotype |
MLS | Young adults | Deep soft tissue | Well-circumscribed, multinodular |
Nodular | Mode-rate | Mixture of uniform round-oval cells and bland fusiform cells | +nt | Plexiform, branching | Myxoid | Rare | Vimentin |
t(12;16) |
LB: Lipoblast, RMS: Rhabdomyosarcoma, DFSP: Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, MFS: Myxofibrosarcoma, MLS: Myxoid liposarcoma, -nt: Absent, +nt: Present
Vulvar MLS is an extremely rare case reported in the literature. The present case marks the seventh reporting of vulval myxoid/ round cell liposarcoma and the first one presenting with iliac lymph node metastasis. Both pathologists and clinicians should be aware of the occurrence of this entity in vulval region to ensure the correct diagnosis and appropriate management of the patient with this potentially curable neoplasm.
References
Non-cellular morphologic markers in pleomorphic adenoma: A rare observation
A 43-year-old male presented with complaint of swelling in the left parotid region for the past 7–8 years. The swelling was painless, insidious in onset, and progressively increased in size. Local examination revealed a single, well-defined, non-tender, and firm swelling measuring 3.5 × 3 cm in the left preauricular region. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) stained smears show the following findings [
(a) Abundant fibrillary chondromyxoid material, numerous basophilic refractile structures (Giemsa, ×400), (b) Myoepithelial cell admixed with clusters of orangeophilic, refractile structures (Papanicolaou stain, ×1000), (c) Radially arranged, glossy, petal-like structures (Thin red Arrow) with blunt ends of refractile structures. (Papanicolaou stain, ×1000), (d) Few epithelial cells have intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusion (Thick Red Arrow) (Papanicolaou stain, ×1000).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Tyrosine-rich crystalloid Collagenous crystalloid Amylase crystalloid Calcium oxalate crystalloid
Answer: Q1-A. Tyrosine-rich crystalloid
Tyrosine-rich crystalloids (TRCs) are round to oval, refractile, floret-shaped orangeophilic (Papanicolaou stain) structures with symmetrical lobulated contour, central rounded core, and peripheral “rosette like” arrangement.[
Q2. What is your most probable diagnosis?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma Basal cell adenoma Warthin tumor Pleomorphic adenoma (PA)
Answer: Q2-D
PA is characterized by a variable admixture of ductal epithelial cells, myoepithelial cells, and mesenchymal matrix. The mesenchymal matrix may be either chondromyxoid matrix as in most of the cases or less commonly reveal amyloid, collagenous substance, and/or elastic fibers.[
Q3. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
TRCs are refractile structures seen in both neoplastic and non-neoplastic lesions of parotid glands Histochemical reactions (Millon’s stain and diazotization coupling reaction) help to confirm the presence of tyrosine. Intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions are the most commonly observed features in pleomorphic adenoma. All of the above
Answer: Q3-C
TRCs are found in both neoplastic and non-neoplastic salivary gland lesions such as PA, myoepithelioma, carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma, terminal duct adenocarcinoma, and parotid cysts.[
In 1953, Bullock first described the “innumerable crystalline aggregate” present in histologic section of PA as tyrosine crystals because its structure resembles that of tyrosine.[
Since TRCs are the most common crystalloids found in PA, some authors suggest that TRC can serve as a non-cellular morphologic marker of salivary gland neoplasia which might be helpful in paucicellular smears. This case report also aims to emphasize the importance of this novel observation to the novice budding cytopathologists.
References
Parietal swelling in an old female: A diagnostic conundrum
A 60-year-old female presented with a swelling on the left side of scalp for the past 10 months. The swelling was gradually progressing in size and was associated with on and off pain. There was no history of neurological deficits, however, there was a history of chest pain for the past 1 month. On examination, there was a 4 × 3 cm bony hard swelling over the left parietal region of scalp. Her vital signs were stable and fundus examination was normal. Neurological examination did not reveal any signs of raised intracranial pressure, cranial nerve palsy, or any neurological deficit. Her routine hematological and biochemical investigations were within normal range except for an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 60 mm/h. X-ray of the skull showed a well-circumscribed lytic lesion in the left parietal convexity.
Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) from the swelling on the scalp was performed [
(a) FNA smears of scalp swelling showing clusters and dispersed round cells (Giemsa, ×100). (b) FNA smears of scalp swelling showing uni- and binucleate cells with eccentric nuclei (Giemsa, ×400), inset: Plasma blast-like cell with dispersed chromatin and moderate cytoplasm. (c) Squash cytology smears of parietal mass showing sheets and scattered oval cells (Giemsa, ×100). (d) Squash cytology smears of parietal mass showing plasmacytoid cells with abundant cytoplasm and eccentrically placed nuclei (Pap, ×400).
Plasma cell lesion Hematopoietic cells Infective etiology Benign neoplasm
Answer 1: Option a – Plasma cell lesion
The aspirate showed moderate cellularity with cohesive fragments of predominantly round cells having inconspicuous nucleoli and fine granular chromatin. Few interspersed cells with eccentric nuclei and pale cytoplasm were noted. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain showed an extra-axial homogenously enhancing solid lesion measuring 3.8 × 3.6 cm in the left parietal region involving skull vault and scalp, isointense on T1W [
(a) T1W MRI of the brain showing a well-defined, extra-axial, isointense lesion in the left parietal region. (b) The same lesion is heterogeneously hyperintense on T1W gadolinium-enhanced MRI.
Meningioma Solitary plasmacytoma of skull Multiple myeloma with associated bony plasmacytoma Metastatic tumor
Answer 2: Option b – Solitary plasmacytoma of skull
Multiple FNA was done from the scalp mass. Smears revealed moderate cellularity comprising clusters of round to oval cells with fine chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli and also seen were interspersed plasma cells with eccentric nuclei and moderate amount of pale bluish cytoplasm. Binucleate cells with few reactive forms were noted [
Cytomorphological features and radiological findings were suggestive of solitary plasmacytoma of skull. However, a possibility of multiple myeloma (MM) could not be excluded because biochemical investigations were within normal limits, but other ancillary investigations such as complete skeletal survey, serum/urine electrophoresis, and bone marrow examination were not performed.
The diagnosis of meningioma is eliminated as the classical features such as intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions, whorling pattern, and psammomatous calcification were not found. Sometimes, in rare cases, unusual cytomorphologic features including plasmacytoid appearance may be seen.[
Of the metastatic tumors, plasmacytoma may be misdiagnosed as malignant melanoma because of the eccentric nuclei, but it is a less likely diagnosis in our case as there is no pseudo-inclusion, melanin pigment, and frequent mitoses. Metastasis from neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) could still be kept as a differential, however, NET cells are rounder with salt and pepper chromatin, and frequent mitotic figures.
Solitary plasmacytoma of bone (SBP) Multiple myeloma with associated plasmacytoma Meningioma with plasmacytoid pattern Metastasis
Answer 3: Option b – Multiple myeloma with associated plasmacytoma
Surgery for excision of the parietal bony mass lesion was performed. There was grayish-colored tumor tissue adherent to dura which was scraped off. Both the soft tumor tissue and involved bony tissue were sent for histopathological examination. Routine processing was done and hematoxylin and eosin staining was performed. Sections showed sheets of plasmacytoid cells infiltrating the bone [
(a) Tissue sections from parietal mass showing sheets of plasma cells involving the bone (H&E, ×100). (b) Plasma cells showing diffuse membranous positivity for CD 138 (×100). (c) Nuclei of plasma cells showing diffuse kappa positivity (×100). (d) Nuclei of plasma cells negative for lambda (×100).
A workup for MM was advised including all the necessary investigations. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT) chest revealed multiple erosive lesions in dorsolumbar vertebrae and bony thoracic cage. Serum protein electrophoresis showed monoclonal gammopathy with a serum M protein concentration of 3.50 g/dl [
(a) Serum protein electrophoresis: Densitometric tracing showing M-spike. (b) Serum protein electrophoresis: Gel picture showing M-band.
Bone pain Bone pain and infection Cranial nerve palsies All of the above
Answer 4: Option d – All of the above
MM classically presents with pain related to skeletal lytic lesions, anemia, infections, renal failure, and hyperviscosity syndrome. Plasmacytoma of skull can lead to bone pain as well as cranial nerve compression secondary to skull base involvement, mostly affected are II, III, IV, and VI.[
The potential for malignant systemic progression (MM) is higher for SBP than extramedullary plasmacytoma (EMP). The potential for malignant systemic progression (MM) is higher for EMP than SBP. The potential for malignant systemic progression (MM) is similar for EMP and SBP. None of the above statement is correct.
Answer 5: Option a - The potential for malignant systemic progression (MM) is higher for SBP than EMP.
It has been found that the risk for a plasmacytoma of skull base to progress to MM is higher in comparison to EMP.[
Plasma cell neoplasms arise due to pathologic proliferation of the plasma cell population and the presentation can vary from benign solitary plasmacytoma to malignant MM. Solitary plasmacytoma can either involve an isolated bone or can be seen in the form of EMP. MM usually presents with symptoms secondary to anemia, renal failure, bony lytic lesions, and infections due to hypogammaglobulinemia. The most common location of EMP is head and neck.[
Meningiomas are the most common extra-axial tumors which present with headache and focal neurological deficits depending on the location. A few case reports of plasmacytoma mimicking meningioma on radiology have been found. Meningiomas are usually isointense on T1W imaging and show post-contrast enhancement which is similar to plasmacytomas. Calcification can be seen in about 20% of cases.[
Majority of the dural metastatic tumors originate from breast, lung, kidney, prostate, lymphoma, or a melanoma.[
Primary dural lymphomas are the rare malignancies in the central nervous system (CNS) and are usually low-grade marginal zone associated lymphomas. These are again isointense on T1W and show vivid post-contrast enhancement.[
The treatment modality is different in different types of plasma cell neoplasms. Excisional surgery is the treatment of choice in case of solitary plasmacytoma. However, radiotherapy may be indicated in some cases depending on the location and the extent of the tumor.[
Solitary plasmacytoma can be the initial presentation of multiple myeloma so a thorough clinical, hematological, and biochemical workup along with skeletal survey is necessary in all cases. Correct diagnosis in such cases helps in planning proper treatment and results in prolonged overall and progression-free survival.
References
Two unusual cases of hematuria reported on urine cytology
A 65-year-old male presented with complaints of gross painless hematuria for 2 months. There was no history of associated abdominal mass, pain, dysuria, or fever. General and systemic examination did not reveal any abnormality. Routine hemogram and peripheral blood smear examination findings were normal. On contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT) abdomen and pelvis, there was smooth contrast enhancing thickening in the urinary bladder wall. Routine and microscopic urine examination was normal. A 3-day consecutive urine sample was received for cytological examination. It was processed by cytocentrifugation and smears prepared were stained with Giemsa stains [
(a) Microfilaria larvae with occasional benign urothelial cells and abundant red blood cells, Giemsa ×200. (b) Malignant urothelial cells in clusters and occasional larva, Pap ×400. (c) Malignant urothelial cells in clusters (upper right corner), Pap ×400.
Magnetic resonance imaging abdomen and pelvis; small mass in urinary bladder.
Urinary filariasis Filariasis with underlying malignancy Both None
Answer 1: Option C – Both
Smears of the first patient revealed predominantly RBCs with occasional benign urothelial cells and polymorphs. Occasional sheathed microfilaria (Mf) larvae with the absence of nuclei at tip of the tail (
The cytological examination of the second patient revealed cellular smears with singly scattered and clusters of malignant urothelial cells. The cells show high nucleocytoplasmic ratio, nuclear membrane irregularity, hyperchromasia, prominent nucleoli, and scant cytoplasm. Few sheathed Mf were interspersed and revealed the absence of nuclei at the tail tip. Cytological diagnosis of high-grade urothelial carcinoma with incidental microfilaria was reported.
Filaria Malignancy Both None
Answer 2: Option C – Both
Blood in the urine is the most common symptom in patients of urothelial tract malignancies.[
Bladder malignancy Inflammatory pathology Both A and B
Answer 3: Option C – Both A and B
Cystitis usually shows diffuse smooth wall thickening of the urinary bladder instead of focal thickened. Focal bladder wall thickening with the presence of trabeculations is more commonly associated with urothelial malignancy. Carcinomas are usually associated with the presence of exophytic lesions in the bladder. However, achylous hematuria along with multiple exophytic lesions can be rarely seen in cases of filariasis.[
Mf larvae circulate in blood and can be seen on peripheral blood smear examination. However, the adult form resides in lymphatics. Lymphatic obstruction can lead to the appearance of Mf in urine. Other factors such as vascular wall injury by trauma, inflammation, stasis, or tumor may attribute to the same.[
Microscopy Urine cytology Polymerase chain reaction Serology
Answer 4: Option C – Polymerase chain reaction
Detection of Mf on microscopy is relatively frequent on sediment smears of cystoscopically catheterized urine samples but very rarely in the voided samples.[
Filariasis is a parasitic infection commonly seen in the tropical and subtropical countries.[
We reiterate that microfilaria may be seen as an incidental finding in urine in patients presenting with achylous hematuria with negative peripheral blood smear findings. Although clinically and radiologically, the bladder filariasis may mimic malignancy; cytological examination of urine helps establish an early diagnosis. Concomitant presence of incidental microfilaria with high-grade urothelial carcinoma is rare in a radiologically unsuspected case for any mass lesion. We emphasize the diagnostic role of urine cytology in such unusual cases during early screening of patients with hematuria.
References
Encounter with unusual tumor having classic cytomorphology presenting as neck mass
A 50-year-old woman complained of the right-sided neck swelling of 6 months duration. It was a gradually increasing 4x3 cm, soft-firm, non-tender, slightly mobile mass. On ultrasonogram (USG) neck, there was massive, necrotic lymphadenopathy which suggested the possibility of tuberculosis and a small (0.9 × 0.7 cm size) cystic lesion in the thyroid gland. The patient revealed a history of similar neck swelling 3 years back, which regressed completely after aspiration, reports of which were not available. The fine-needle aspiration cytology of neck mass yielded approximately 5 ml, thin, hemorrhagic fluid; the swelling regressed partially after aspiration. The procedure was repeated from the residual mass. The FNA smears from neck nodes are provided.
Q1: What is the possible diagnosis?
Metastasis of papillary thyroid carcinoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma Lymphoma Ectopic meningioma
Answer: (c) Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma
The literature search reveals that follicular dendritic cell (FDC) sarcoma usually display cellular smears presenting as thick syncytial groups, whorls, fascicles, or single cells intimately admixed with mature lymphocytes and plasma cells. The cytological features are better highlighted on May-Grunwald Giemsa (MGG) stain [
(a) FNA from cervical LN: Tumor cells seen as thick fragments and singly placed cells, intimately admixed with lymphocytes and plasma cells (May-Grunwald Giemsa [MGG], ×20). (b) Oval, plump to elongated cells with indistinct outline, moderate pale cytoplasm (Papanicolaou [PAP], ×20). (c) Nuclei are round, oval to plump with fine chromatin and prominent nuclear intranuclear inclusion and nuclear grooves (arrow) (Papanicolaou, ×40). (d) Vague microfollicular pattern and dissociated tumor cells (PAP, ×20).
Considering the primary presentation of enlarged neck nodes, USG favoring solitary hypoechoic lesion in thyroid and cytomorphology of vague papillary structures, microfollicular pattern, [ The other differential diagnosis can be nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) undifferentiated type, which it mimics clinically and presents as enlarged neck nodes. The smears reveal mostly dissociated and loose groups of cells with few enlarged pleomorphic and lobulated nuclei against a background of mature lymphocytes. The presence of nuclear grooves, inconspicuous nucleoli, and low mitotic count was against the diagnosis of NPC[ Possibility of lymphoma Hodgkin’s type was less likely, the pointers for lymphoma can be presence few atypical cells with pleomorphic, lobulated nuclei, and admixture with lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils. However, classical Reed–Sternberg cells were absent Ectopic meningioma can also be a likely differential, especially when clinical presentation is neck mass. The overlapping features were oval to plump to elongated cells with bland chromatin, inconspicuous nucleoli, and intranuclear inclusions. However, the absence of whorl formation and admixture of lymphocytes with tumor cell makes the possibility of conventional meningioma less likely.[
Question 2: FDC sarcoma is categorized as
Low-grade malignancy High-grade malignancy Intermediate-grade malignancy Benign tumor
Answer: (c) Intermediate-grade malignancy[
Question 3: All are common extranodal sites of this condition except
GIT Brain Skin Liver
Answer: (b) Brain[
Question 4: Which of the following is false about poor prognostic factors of FDC sarcoma?
Tumor size >10 cm Mitosis >5/10 hpf Coagulation necrosis Significant cellular atypia
Answer: (a) Tumor size more than 10 cm[
The patient was investigated, further his CT scan revealed a right cervical lymphadenopathy, seen as multiple, enlarged lymph nodes with cystic component and single 9 × 7 mm, cyst in the right lobe of thyroid. It also revealed ipsilateral enlargement of tonsil measuring 3 × 3 cm and left para pharyngeal heterogeneous, enhancing, lobulated mass favoring lymph node metastasis. FNA from parapharyngeal lymph nodes yielded similar cytomorphological features as that from cervical nodes [
FNA from Para pharyngeal LN mass: Tumor cells with similar morphology with few scattered mature squamous cells (Hematoxylin and eosin, ×20).
Tonsillar mass Histopathology: Subepithelial tumor consisting of solid islands and fascicles separated by fibrous stroma having mononuclear cell infiltration. Cells are round to oval with moderate pale cytoplasm, central nuclei with vesicular chromatin, and nucleoli in some. Occasional pleomorphic cells also evident (Hematoxylin and eosin, ×20).
Immunohistochemistry: Tumor cells expressing strong membranous positivity (CD21, ×20).
FDCs also called dendritic reticulum cells form the network in germinal centers of lymph nodes. They present antigens to T lymphocytes so that memory B cells and plasma cells can be generated.[
The high index of suspicion and knowledge about cytomorphology can allow a pre-operative recognition of FDC sarcoma. The diagnostic confirmation can further be achieved by histopathology and judicious use of IHC. Our aim is to complement the current knowledge about cytology and alert cytopathologist about this rare entity to avoid misdiagnosis.
References
Pleural effusion in hematological pathology
(a and b) Diff-Quik stain ×10 and ×40, respectively. Pleural fluid consisting of a mildly cellular specimen with reactive mesothelial cells and atypical cells. B. The atypical cells showed high N/C ratio, irregular nuclear membranes with apoptotic bodies. (c and d) H&E ×10 and ×40, cell block was cellular specimen with an increased number of atypical cells, high N/C ratio, irregular nuclear membrane in a background of extensive apoptotic bodies.
Q1. What is the cytopathology interpretation here?
Mesothelioma Metastatic melanoma Metastatic adenocarcinoma Small cell carcinoma of the lung Myeloproliferative process.
Answer to Q1: (e) The correct cytopathologic interpretation is myeloproliferative process.
Choice #(e): Myeloproliferative process involving pleural cavity is presented as this quiz case. The patient had a history of CMML-2. The cytology of pleural fluid shows atypical non-cohesive cells with various cells of myeloid series, including myeloblasts, monoblasts, promyelocytes, promonocytes, myelocytes, and metamyelocytes. Atypical cells were immunoreactive for vimentin, CD68, and CD163 and non-reactive for calretinin, BerEP4, and MOC31, consistent with monocytic lineage. The clinical history of CMML with cytomorphological and immunohistochemical features are consistent with CMML involving pleural cavity.
Option (a): On cytology, neoplastic cells of mesothelioma are cohesive groups seen as flat sheets, three-dimensional groups, and papillary or tubular acinar pattern. The mesothelioma cells are immunoreactive for calretinin (nuclear) and cytokeratin (CK) 7. The diagnosis of mesothelioma requires correlation with radiological findings, including pleural-based lesions/diffuse pleural thickening with a history of exposure to environmental factors such as asbestos.
Option (b): Metastatic melanoma may show singly scattered atypical cells with bizarre, hyperchromatic irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli. Although most of the melanomas are amelanotic, some tumor cells may show melanin pigment.
Option (c): Metastatic adenocarcinoma shows loosely cohesive small nests/clusters of neoplastic cells with proliferation spheres. The cells may have intracytoplasmic targetoid vacuoles with secretion/foamy cytoplasm with peripherally pushed nuclei. Other features that can be identified are touching of the nucleus to the cell membrane, round to oval nuclei with fine to coarse chromatin, and sometimes prominent nucleoli. Some cases may show singly scattered cells. Adenocarcinoma cells usually are non-immunoreactive for vimentin with immunoreactivity for BerEP4 with characteristic immunoprofile of a particular primary site.
Option (d): Small cell carcinoma cells show atypical cells with high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, scant delicate basophilic cytoplasm, nuclear molding, diathesis, or necrosis, and granular (salt and pepper) chromatin. Although generally small cell carcinoma cells usually do not show easily detectable nucleoli, the metastatic small carcinoma cells in the serous effusion fluids may show an indistinct nucleolus.
Q2. Which of the following is a feature of a myeloproliferative process?
Nuclear molding Chromogranin immunoreactivity TTF-1 positivity d. MPO cytoplasmic staining Synaptophysin immunoreactivity.
Q3. Which of the following features favor an epithelial neoplasm over a hematological malignancy?
Proliferation spheres CD45/LCA immunoreactivity Lymphoglandular bodies CD20 immunoreactivity t(9:22) BCR/ABL.
Q4. Which of the following features would favor a reactive lymphoproliferative process over lymphoma in pleural fluid?
Elevated Ki-67 proliferation index A polymorphous population of lymphocytes BerEP4 immunoreactivity Cytoplasmic vacuoles with mucin (PAS-D and mucicarmine positive).
Answers to additional quiz questions
Q2. d, Q3. a, and Q4. b
Cellular specimen with non-cohesive cells Variable cell morphology is seen, including rare myeloblast Usually, a necrotic background is not present Some of the cells may show granular cytoplasm.[
Blood count shows marked leukocytosis, monocytosis, and organomegaly. The cells may show dysplastic changes Around 80% of cases are Splenomegaly is present in 30–50% of cases, rarely causing a splenic rupture May have a reactive aggregate of CD123+ benign plasmacytoid dendritic cells More closely related to myelodysplastic syndrome than myeloproliferative neoplasms (the loss of heterozygosity evaluation).
Persistent peripheral blood monocytosis >1 × 109/L or monocytes accounting for > 10% of WBC WHO criteria for BCR-ABL1-positive chronic myeloid leukemia, primary myelofibrosis, polycythemia vera, and essential thrombocythemia are not met No rearrangement of <20% blasts (includes myeloblasts, monoblasts, and promonocytes) in blood and bone marrow.
Type 0: About <2% blasts in the blood and <5% in the bone marrow, no Auer rods.
Type 1: About 2–4% blasts in blood or 5–9% blasts in the bone marrow and no Auer rods.
Type 2: About 5–19% blasts in blood, 10–19% blasts in bone marrow, or Auer rods present with any number of blasts.
If blasts and/or promonocytes (blast equivalents) are 20% more in bone marrow differential count or blood, it is classified as acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
Peripheral blood may have dysplastic changes typical of myelodysplasia in one or more myeloid lineages In case of minimal or absent myelodysplasia, the diagnosis can be established in the presence of acquired or clonal genetic abnormality or if persistent monocytosis of >3 months and after excluding reactive causes for monocytosis.
Most of the cases have increased WBC count because of monocytosis and neutrophilia. However, sometimes, the number is slightly decreased. In general, the monocytes appear normal but may have abnormal granulation, more nuclear convolutions, and denser chromatin than promonocytes (termed as abnormal monocytes).
Hypercellular marrow with mildly increased monocytes (this is not diagnostic by itself) and increased granulocytes; may have increased reticulin fibers; variable dysplastic changes in erythroid cells, myeloid cells, and megakaryocytes. Cases with eosinophilia need screening for
Variable immunoreactivity for CD68, CD163, CD64, and CD14 is observed [
Calretinin immunohistochemistry (IHC): a (10×) and b (40×)): The atypical cells are negative for nuclear immunoreactivity for calretinin. vimentin IHC: d (10×) and c (40×) The atypical cells show strong immunoreactivity for vimentin.
CD68 IHC: (IHC): a (10×) and b (40×): The atypical cells show strong and diffuse cytoplasmic immunoreactivity for CD68. CD163 IHC: d (10×) and c (40×) The atypical cells show of strong cytoplasmic immunoreactivity for CD163.
Mutational analysis is beneficial when benign cases of monocytosis cannot be ruled out In most cases, a clonal abnormality can be identified in one of the following nine genes: SRSF2, ASXL1, CBL, EZH2, JAK2, KRAS, NRAS, RUNX1, and TET2.[
Abnormalities in 20–40% of cases, including trisomy 8, monosomy 7, monosomy 5, deletion 12p, and deletion 20q. The absence of the Philadelphia chromosome,
Flow cytometry is generally considered non-specific. The neoplastic monocytes in CMML have the same immunophenotypic expression as mature monocytes with bright expression of CD45, CD11b, CD11c, CD13, CD14, CD64, and CD15. Aberrant phenotypes including dim/variable CD14, CD13, HLA-DR, CD64, and overexpression of CD56 are also observed in majority of cases Abnormal antigen expression of two or more antigens plus 20% of marrow monocytes showing moderate CD14 expression is found to be 100% specific for CMML versus reactive monocytosis[ Monocytes show no expression of stem cell markers, including CD34 and CD117.
Median survival is 20–40 months. Progression into acute leukemia occurs in 15–30% cases, which is the most crucial factor conferring a poor prognosis. Various clinical factors, including but not limited to, lactate dehydrogenase, splenomegaly, and blast count, are included in the CMML-specific prognostic scoring system.[
Tumor cells with occasional cytoplasmic brown pigment, with bizarre; hyperchromatic, irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli Necrosis and occasional mitotic figures can also be seen Immunoreactive for S100 protein, HMB45, and MelanA/ MART1.
The effusion fluid is usually highly cellular Cohesive flat sheets with papillary or tubular/acinar patterns are common The nuclei are centrally or near centrally located Binucleation or multinucleation is common The nuclei show a varying degree of pleomorphism, but nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio remains relatively consistent Immunoreactive for calretinin (nuclear immunostaining), D2-40 (membranous/microvillous immunostaining), and CK 5/6.
High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio Scant delicate basophilic cytoplasm Nuclear molding Crush artifact Diathesis or necrosis Granular (“salt and pepper”) chromatin Cells are approximately 1.5 times the size of mature lymphocytes Immunoreactive for pan-keratin (dot-like pattern), TTF-1, chromogranin, and synaptophysin.
Tightly cohesive small nests/clusters of neoplastic cells arranged in the form of glandular architecture Proliferation spheres may be present Intracytoplasmic vacuoles/foamy cytoplasm, displacing nuclei at the periphery (rhabdoid appearance) Neoplastic cells have large round to oval nuclei with smooth to coarse chromatin and occasional prominent nucleoli Extracellular mucin Immunoreactive for MOC31, Napsin, TTF-1, Ber-EP4, and CK7.
Increased cellularity Reactive mesothelial cells with wide cytomorphological spectrum Background of mixed inflammatory cells Granulomas (±fibrosis) Microorganisms may be seen.
CMML is a rare aggressive entity. The incidence is fewer than 1100 newly diagnosed cases each year in the United States and is characterized by cytopenia, dysplasia, and monocytosis within the bone marrow and peripheral blood. It comes under a category called myelodysplastic syndrome/ myeloproliferative neoplasm. This disease is typically found in older men with a mean age of 70 years and is notoriously difficult to treat. Although there are multiple prognostic models discussed, there has not yet been a definite CMML-specific prognostic system involving molecular alterations. Despite the advent of new drug treatments such as hypomethylating agents, currently, the allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT) still is the only curative treatment available. Even with allo-HSCT, the overall 5-year survival rates after therapy are 18–47%.[
There are only 10 reported cases of pleural effusions associated with CMML reflecting the incidence of this poorly understood phenomenon. These cases are summarized in
Summary of CMML cases involving pleura reported in english literature.
Year of publication, country | Author | No. of reported cases | Type of CMML | Cytogenetic and morphological features | Reactive effusion versus malignant effusion | Pleural effusion as an initial presentation (IP) or during the course of the disease (DC) | The outcome of the patient |
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
1998, Greece | Bourantas |
4 | Not specified (NS) | NS | A single case of effusion secondary to leukemic infiltration and other cases with reactive effusion | 2-IP |
Expired due to acute leukemia |
1998, Turkey | Hiçsönmez |
Two children | NS | NS | Effusion secondary to leukemic infiltration | DC | Successfully treated with short-course high-dose methylprednisolone |
2004, Japan | Watanabe |
1 | NS | NS | Effusion secondary to leukemic infiltration | DC | Effusion resolved after iv/oral etoposide. However, the patient expired in 4 months due to transformation into AML and colonic involvement leading to colonic perforation, panperitonitis, and multiple bleeding gastric ulcers |
2005, Japan | Yamazaki |
1 | CMML-2 | Normal karyotype | Effusion secondary to leukemic infiltration | IP | Successfully treated with hydroxycarbamide. |
2014, Japan | Imataki |
1 | CMML-1 | Trisomy (46, XX, +1, der (1;15) (q10; q10) in 11 of 20 interphase cells. | Reactive effusion (polyserositis) | IP | Successfully treated with corticosteroids |
2016, Japan | Sunami |
1 | NS | NS | Indeterminate | DC | Sudden massive effusion during cytoreductive therapy |
The case, we presented, is 1.6 years into post-unrelated donor peripheral blood stem cell transplant and is doing well without relapse or leukemic infiltration.
References
Diagnosis of a rare case of malignant metastatic tumor on fine-needle aspiration of cervical lymph nodes and subcutaneous nodules
A 69-year-old female patient presented with multiple bilateral swellings in the neck region of 20 days duration. The right posterior triangle lymph node was large necrotic and fixed to the skin. The left posterior triangle lymph node was small necrotic and fixed to the skin. There was a history of on and off fever. FNA was done from both lymph nodes.
What is your interpretation?
Metastatic malignant melanoma Metastatic melanotic medullary carcinoma thyroid Metastatic malignant paraganglioma Metastatic pigmented malignant schwannoma.
The correct cytopathology interpretation is:
b. Metastatic melanotic medullary carcinoma thyroid.
The right and left cervical lymph node smears showed rich cell yield consisting of round to oval cells with moderate amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm, hyperchromatic round nuclei with anisonucleosis. Neither nuclear inclusions nor nuclear grooving was seen. Some cells showed eccentric plasmacytoid nuclei and were mostly arranged discretely and in loose sheets with very occasional well-defined follicle formation. Few cells exhibited brown pigment in their cytoplasm. Considerable numbers of binucleated and trinucleated tumor giant cells were seen. No lymph nodal cellular elements were seen in the smear. The tumor cells exhibited high mitotic activity [
Fine-needle aspiration cytology. Smear showing rich cellularity with a dispersed population of mono/binucleated atypical plasmacytoid cells with eccentric nuclei and high mitotic activity. Few cells show melanin pigment in the cytoplasm (a and b) (H&E ×100 and ×400). (c) Histopathology sections of the lymph node showing complete replacement by metastatic deposits from a tumor composed of pleomorphic cells with multinucleated giant cells and few cells with melanin pigment (H&E ×100 and inset). (d) Tumor cells in lymph node showing diffuse positivity for chromogranin (IHC chromogranin ×100).
Clinical history revealed no skin lesion past or present, whereas an ultrasound examination of the neck showed few well defined hypoechoic lesions with vascularity in both lobes of thyroid along with the right and left cervical lymphadenopathy. The serum calcium levels were elevated and thyroid profile was normal.
Subsequently, a biopsy of the left cervical lymph node was done.
Gross examination: We received two gray-white tissue fragments of sizes 2.5 × 1.5 × 1 cm and 1.5 × 1 × 1 cm.
Sections showed near total replacement of lymph node by sheets of pleomorphic epithelioid cells and a few tumor giant cells. Some tumor cells were arranged in vague follicular pattern and a few cells showed intracytoplasmic brown pigment [
In view of the cytological diagnosis, the patient was further evaluated by ultrasound examination of the neck which showed few well defined hypoechoic lesions with vascularity in both lobes of thyroid along with the right and left cervical lymphadenopathy. The serum calcium levels were elevated and thyroid profile was normal.
The patient refused further treatment and was discharged. Twenty days later, she came back with painless subcutaneous masses in the inframammary and scalp region, which she had noted for 3 days.
On examination, three swellings were noted in the subcutaneous plane in the right hypochondrium (1 × 1 × 1 cm), left inframammary area (1.5 × 1.5 cm), and frontal area of the scalp (0.5 × 0.5 cm) which were firm in consistency, non-tender, immobile, with skin over swelling being normal. Cytology of these three masses also revealed a similar picture as before and reported as metastatic deposits from medullary carcinoma of thyroid, melanotic variant and was confirmed by histopathology. FNA of the thyroid was also done and showed a similar cytological picture. The patient refused further treatment and left against medical advice.
Q1: What is the cell of origin of medullary carcinoma? (a) Thyroid follicular cells (b) chief cells of parathyroid (c) C cells of ultimobranchial body (d) oxyphil cells of parathyroid.
Q2: Which immunohistochemical marker is not expressed in medullary carcinoma (a) calcitonin (b) CEA (c) PAX 8 (d) thyroglobulin.
Q3: All of the following are variants of medullary carcinoma except (a) spindle cell variant (b) small cell variant (c) giant cell variant (d) large cell variant.
Q1: c; Q2: d; and Q3: d. Q1: (c) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid constitutes 5–10% of all thyroid malignancies and the tumor derives from para follicular C cells of neural crest origin. Q2: (d) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is positive for IHC markers calcitonin, CEA, and PAX8, whereas it is negative for thyroglobulin and estrogen receptor. Q3: (d) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid has many variants such as amphicrine variant, angiosarcoma-like, clear cell, encapsulated, follicular, giant cell, melanotic, oncocytic, papillary, paraganglioma-like, pseudopapillary, small cell, spindle cell, and squamous. There is no large cell variant described.
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid constitutes 5–10% of all thyroid malignancies and the tumor derives from parafollicular C cells of neural crest origin.[
Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is an important diagnostic procedure for any palpable swelling and is especially useful in neck masses. Metastatic deposits in lymph nodes are diagnosed with ease in FNAC including typing with a possible reference to the primary site. Frequently, metastatic deposits in lymph nodes are discovered initially with a search for the primary as in our case.
The differential diagnosis in the present case was between a malignant melanoma which can mimic any tumor and a melanotic variant of medullary carcinoma of thyroid. The former diagnosis was ruled out as there was no history of a pigmented lesion past or present. Immunohistochemistry also aided in the diagnosis, as the tumor was positive both for chromogranin and HMB 45.
Histological and immunohistochemical studies confirmed the cytological diagnosis. A similar case was reported by De Lima
Melanocytic differentiation in medullary carcinoma of thyroid is very rare. The prognostic and therapeutic significance of this variant of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) is not exactly known, but this variant appears to be more aggressive.[
Hirokawa
References
Cytodiagnosis of scalp swelling: An uncommon presentation of a common neoplasm
A 56-year-old male presented with complaint of swellings on the scalp for a month. On examination, two swellings were identified in the left parietal and the occipital region, measuring 5 × 4 cm and 3 × 3 cm, respectively. The contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan revealed soft-tissue densities in relation to the calvarium, with underlying bone erosion and intracranial extension [
(a) Fine-needle aspirate cytology smear shows numerous mature plasma cells, few immature form, lymphocytes, and bare nuclei (MGG stain, ×400). (b) Flame cell (MGG stain, ×1000). (c) Axial cranial CT reveals osteolytic extradural soft-tissue masses (arrowhead) involving the diploe of the calvarium, with cortical defects and intracranial extension.
What is your interpretation?
Plasma cell granuloma Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma Plasmacytoma Syringocystadenoma papilliferum
Answer
The correct cytopathological interpretation is:
(c) Plasmacytoma
The cytology smears show a dispersed population of cells having round, eccentric nucleus, with coarsely clumped chromatin, inconspicuous nucleolus, and dense cytoplasm with perinuclear hof, conforming to the morphology of mature plasma cells [
Non-neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells is usually seen in association with mixed inflammatory cells such as lymphocytes and neutrophils. Plasma cell granuloma, also known as inflammatory pseudotumor, is a fibroblastic/ myofibroblastic lesion cytologically characterized by the presence of spindle cells accompanied by an inflammatory infiltrate of numerous plasma cells, lymphocytes, and few eosinophils. Although rare in soft tissue, it has been reported most commonly in lungs, oral cavity, gingival mucosa, etc.
Some non-Hodgkin lymphomas, in particular, high-grade malignant immunoblastic lymphoma and marginal zone B-cell lymphoma may depict plasmacytoid morphology, posing a morphological dilemma. However, possibility of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is excluded by a characteristic absence of lymphoglandular bodies in the background.
Some cutaneous adnexal tumors, such as syringocystadenoma papilliferum, show numerous plasma cells on FNA smears. This entity is superficial, limited to the skin, and presents clinically as a nodular, warty tumor or as ulcerated lesion of the scalp, neck, and face. In addition to the plasma cells, the smears also show cohesive aggregates of epithelial cells, with focal papillary configuration.
Further investigations revealed mild anemia (Hb 8.7 g/dL), hypercalcemia (11.3 mg/dL), and deranged renal function (creatinine 11 mg/dL and urea 45 mg/dL). Bone marrow (BM) aspiration and trephine biopsy showed the presence of 17% plasma cells [
(a) Bone marrow aspirate smear shows aggregates of plasma cells showing eccentrically placed nucleus and cytoplasmic perinuclear hof (MGG stain, ×400). (b) A giant binucleate myeloma cell showing coarse nuclear chromatin and prominent nucleoli. A mature plasma cell is seen in the background (MGG stain, ×400). (c) Bone marrow biopsy shows increased plasma cells, seen as singly scattered cells (H and E, ×400). (d) Serum electrophoresis shows a prominent M band in the gamma globulin region (arrowhead).
Q1. What is your final diagnosis after cytological and hematological, biochemical, and serological evaluation [
Solitary bone plasmacytoma Solitary extramedullary plasmacytoma Solitary plasmacytoma with minimal marrow involvement Multiple myeloma
Q2. Which of the following is not considered a myeloma defining event in patients without CRAB features? (Hypercalcemia [C], renal impairment [R], anemia [A], and bone lesions [B])
BM plasma cells ≥60% Monoclonal globulin spike on serum protein electrophoresis, with an immunoglobulin (Ig) G peak of >3.5 g/dL or an IgA peak of >2 g/dL, or urine protein electrophoresis (in the presence of amyloidosis) result of greater than 1 g/24 h Abnormal MRI with more than 1 focal lesion, with each lesion being >5 mm in size Involved/uninvolved serum free light chain ratio ≥100
Q3. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormality is most commonly associated with extramedullary manifestations in multiple myeloma?
del(17p13) t(4;14) t(13;14) t(14;16)
Answers to the additional quiz questions
1 (d); 2 (b); 3 (a)
(d). Solitary plasmacytoma is defined by the presence of a single biopsy-proven lesion (either bony or extramedullary) and a normal BM examination.[ (b). The International Myeloma Working Group updated the criteria for diagnosis MM to allow, in addition to the classic CRAB features, three “myeloma-defining biomarkers.” The new definition of MM is:[ Clonal BM plasma cells >10% or biopsy-proven bony or EMP in addition to any one or more of the CRAB features and myeloma-defining events:
Evidence of end-organ damage that can be attributed to the underlying plasma cell proliferative disorder, specifically
Hypercalcemia: Serum calcium >0.25 mmol/L (>1 mg/dL) higher than the upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/L (>11 mg/dL) Renal insufficiency: Creatinine clearance <40 mL per minute or serum creatinine >177 mol/L (>2 mg/dL) Anemia: Hemoglobin value of >20 g/L below the lowest limit of normal or a hemoglobin value <100 g/L Bone lesions: One or more osteolytic lesion on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT. If BW has <10% clonal plasma cells, more than 1 bone lesion is required to distinguish from solitary plasmacytoma with minimal marrow involvement Any one or more of the three biomarkers of malignancy or myeloma defining events
60% or greater clonal BM plasma cells Serum involved/uninvolved free light chain ratio of 100 or greater (provided the absolute level of the involved light chain is at least 100 mg/L) More than 1 focal lesion on MRI that is at least 5 mm or greater in size.[ (a). MM with extramedullary involvement appears to be an uncommon phenomenon. Studies have shown extramedullary manifestations in MM to confer higher incidence of poor cytogenetic aberrations and resistance to novel therapeutic agents. These patients are known to show higher incidence of del(17p13) and amp(1q21) and pose potential therapeutic difficulties.[
MM is one of the most frequently encountered hematological malignancies, occurring as a result of uncontrolled expansion of clonal plasma cells.[
A pathologically diagnosed plasmacytoma of the soft tissue may be the only presentation of MM in the initial phase or can be a late extramedullary manifestation seen in the aggressive phase of the disease. It can also be a direct extension or metastasis from underlying solitary plasmacytoma of the bone. The case discussed here, probably arose from the plasmacytoma of the underlying calvarium, with the mass causing bony erosion, cortical breach, and extension into the overlying soft tissue of the scalp.
Literature discussing utilizing cytology for the diagnosis of EMP is further limited.[
Differentiating solitary plasmacytoma from a case of MM is of paramount importance, as the therapeutic approach and prognosis differ. The prognosis of plasmacytoma concurrent with newly diagnosed MM is dismal, with a median survival of less than 3 years.[
The present case describes the rare presentation of MM as scalp swellings. FNAC is a simple, first-line investigation for the diagnosis of extramedullary manifestation of MM, which helps in the early diagnosis and management of these patients.
References
Cytologic diagnosis of a rare soft-tissue lesion: Think beyond the usual
A 52-year-old man presented with a 2 cm non-tender swelling on the left arm for the past 4 years with a rapid increase in size over the past
Plain radiograph demonstrates a soft-tissue lesion with specks of calcification (arrow) and intact underlying cortices of the humerus (a). Fine-needle aspiration smears showing low cellularity (b, Giemsa, ×10) and few groups of round to polygonal cells in the inset (Giemsa, ×40). Prominent nuclear pleomorphism (c, Giemsa, ×40), better seen in inset (arrow) and occasional multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cell marked by arrow (d, Giemsa, ×40) are seen.
What is your cytological interpretation?
Pleomorphic liposarcoma Pleomorphic leiomyosarcoma Myositis ossificans Osteosarcoma of soft tissue
The correct cytological interpretation is:
d. Osteosarcoma of soft tissue.
Cytological smears were paucicellular showing groups of pleomorphic round to polygonal cells with anisonucleosis and nuclear hyperchromasia. Occasional multinucleated giant cells were also seen. The cytological features were indicative of a pleomorphic sarcomatous tumor. However, in conjunction with the radiological features of a soft-tissue lesion with internal specks of calcification, osteosarcoma appeared to be the likely possibility. A diagnosis of pleomorphic liposarcoma requires identification of characteristic lipoblasts with hyperchromatic central nucleus indented by multiple cytoplasmic vacuoles. In pleomorphic leiomyosarcoma, fascicles of spindle cells with elongated blunt-ended nuclei are seen admixed with stripped nuclei and pleomorphic cells. Although myositis ossificans may mimic a sarcomatous tumor, it usually displays milder nuclear pleomorphism and many more multinucleated giant cells.
The lump was excised in toto and submitted for histopathological examination. We received a soft-tissue specimen with attached fibro-fatty tissue measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The specimen gave focal gritty sensation on sectioning through it. Cut section of the specimen showed a gray-white circumscribed lesion, 2 cm in diameter. There were no areas of hemorrhage or necrosis within the lesion.
Histopathologic examination of the lesion showed a tumor composed of pleomorphic round to polygonal cells with bizarre nuclear shapes and frequent mitotic figures
Histological photomicrographs showing a cellular tumor (a, H&E, ×10) with prominent osteoid production (b, H&E, ×40). The osteoid is directly in contact with the pleomorphic tumor cells.
Q1. What proportion of soft-tissue sarcomas is constituted by EOS?
3 5 <1% 8
Q2. What is the most common age group affected by
2nd–4th decade 3rd–5th decade 5th–7th decade 6th–8th decade
Q3. The cytologic differential diagnoses for Malignant fibrous histiocytoma Pleomorphic leiomyosarcoma Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma Myositis ossificans
Answers to the quiz questions:
Q1. The correct answer is C (<1%)
Q2. The correct answer is D (6th–8th decade)
Q3. The correct answer is C (embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma).
The explanations of these questions follow in the next section.
EOS, a rare soft-tissue tumor, accounts for about 1% of all malignant lesions of the soft tissues.[
In addition to the rarity of EOS, the non-specific nature of clinical and radiological features of this lesion usually precludes the optimum utility of FNA in its pre-operative diagnosis.[
The cytologic features of EOS have been described relatively infrequently as single cases or small case series. Nicol
The various cytologic differential diagnoses to be considered in such a pleomorphic soft-tissue tumor would include malignant fibrous histiocytoma, pleomorphic variants of liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma.[
The histological features of EOS are similar to their skeletal counterparts with subtypes such as osteoblastic, chondroblastic, fibroblastic, telangiectatic, and small cell variants.[
EOS, a rare entity, should be considered in the cytologic differential diagnosis of subcutaneous or soft-tissue masses with calcifications apparent radiologically and cytology smears displaying pleomorphic sarcoma-like picture, with or without matrix material. Close clinical, radiologic, and cytohistologic correlation assists in arriving at a precise diagnosis and allowing appropriate management.
References
Rare infection diagnosed by cytology in a bronchoalveolar lavage specimen in a patient with massive pulmonary hemorrhage
A 62-year-old male presented with hemoptysis. At bronchoscopy, the pulmonologist could not visualize the bronchial tree due to massive pulmonary hemorrhage. Bronchial alveolar lavage fluid was sent to the microbiology laboratory for examination. Wet prep revealed numerous, large ciliated organisms with rapid spiraling movement. Multiple videos captured from the wet prep show a large organism with continuous movement rotating around itself and moving rapidly. Various sizes of organisms are noted, some quite large in size.
Trophozoite of lung fluke Cyst of Trophozoite of
The correct answer is
Q1-D. Trophozoite of Balantidium coli.
The organism was first recognized by Malmsten[
Although
The patient recovered completely after treatment with antibiotics.
Wet preparations Stained smears Culture Serum tests.
Lung with pulmonary hemorrhage and necrotizing cavities Peritonitis Appendicitis Genitourinary tract infections All of the above.
Although
It is the largest ciliated parasite to infect humans It is a zoonotic disease Pig to humans is the most common mode of transmission Most pigs and humans are asymptomatic All of the above.
Corrected answer for Q2 to Q4:
Q2-a, Q3-e, Q4-e
References
Effusion cytology and hematopoietic process
An 18-year-old male presented with intermittent chest pain along with dyspnea and cough for 1 month. On examination, the patient had massive pleural effusion (PE) on the right side. His contrast-enhanced computed tomography suggested a large mildly enhancing anterior mediastinal mass with the right-sided PE [
(a) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography showing a large mildly enhancing anterior mediastinal mass (depicted by arrow) with the right-sided pleural effusion, (b) two distinct population of cells appreciated consisting of small- and medium-sized cells (Papanicolaou ×10), (c) higher power shows tumor cells with high N: C ratio, convoluted and lobulated nuclei with scant cytoplasm resembling blasts (Papanicolaou ×40), (d) Giemsa stained smear showing the presence of tumor cells with convoluted, lobulated nuclei with scant cytoplasm (Giemsa ×40).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Metastasis from Hodgkin lymphoma Metastasis from non-Hodgkin lymphoma Leukemic infiltrate Metastasis from germinoma/seminoma Metastasis from thymic carcinoma.
Q1:
b. Metastasis from non-Hodgkin lymphoma
A1: In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, there is a polymorphic background of cells consisting of lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, and histiocytes. The characteristic “Reed Sternberg cell” is present, which possesses a large lobulated nucleus. The cells may be symmetrically paired (mirror shaped), complex, or multiple. They have large eosinophilic nucleoli and abundant pale fragile cytoplasm. These features were lacking in cytocentrifuged cell deposits, thus ruling out metastasis from Hodgkin lymphoma (HL).
Patients with T-cell leukemia may present with an anterior mediastinal mass and PE.[
Germ cell tumors (GCTs) account for 6–18% of mediastinal masses.[
Based on cytomorphology, we can rule out non-seminomatous GCT. In seminoma, the cells are fragile and have a tigroid background. They have vesicular nuclei with prominent nucleoli. Dispersed lymphocytes accompanying tumor cells are also present. However, due to the absence of tigroid background in centrifuged deposits, the diagnosis is more in favor of non-HL. An immunohistochemistry (IHC) is, however, desirable for a confirmatory diagnosis.
Thymic carcinoma metastasis can be safely ruled out based on cytomorphology, as these cells are loosely cohesive with large tumor cells with abundant opaque eosinophilic cytoplasm and the presence of prominent nucleoli in a necrotic background.
In non-HL, we get a monomorphic population of cells with variation in cell size and nuclear features. Small cells are <1.5 times the size of normal lymphocyte. Medium-sized cells are 1.5–2 times while larger cells are 2–3 times the size of normal lymphocyte. In this case, we could appreciate both small- and medium-sized cells. Few of the medium- sized cells showed high N: C ratio and convoluted, lobulated nuclei with scant and fragile cytoplasm resembling blasts. Anisonucleosis could be appreciated with dense chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli. Few of the cells showed the presence of scant, fragile cytoplasm. These cytomorphological features are favoring metastasis from non-HL, possibly lymphoblastic lymphoma, T-cell type, but it needs to be proved by IHC.
A cell block was made [
(a) Cell block consisting of monomorphic population of tumor cells with high N: C ratio and scant cytoplasm (hematoxylin and eosin ×40), (b) tumor cells showing membranous positivity for leukocyte common antigen (immunohistochemistry [IHC] ×10), (c) tumor cells showing membranous positivity for CD3 (IHC ×20), (d) tumor cells showing membranous positivity for CD5 (IHC ×20), (e) tumor cells showing nuclear positivity for terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (IHC ×10), (f) tumor cells showing nuclear positivity for KI 67 (IHC ×10).
Q2. PE occurs in lymphoma because
Impaired lymphatic obstruction Pleural infiltration by the tumor Venous obstruction All the above.
Q3. Most common reason for PE in lymphoma is
Impaired lymphatic obstruction Pleural infiltration by the tumor Venous obstruction Pulmonary infection.
Q4. The criteria for number of blasts that should be present in bone marrow to differentiate between T-lymphoblastic lymphoma from T-lymphocytic leukemia are
>10% blasts in marrow >20% blasts in marrow >25% blasts in marrow >30% blasts in marrow.
Q2: d, Q3: a, Q4: c.
A2: PE in lymphoma can emerge from the results of the variety of mechanisms, such as impaired lymphatic drainage due to mediastinal lymph nodes or thoracic duct obstruction, pleural or pulmonary infiltration by tumor, venous obstruction, pulmonary infection, or radiation therapy.[
A3: Lymphatic obstruction is the most frequent factor for PE.[
A4: The distinction between T-lymphoblastic lymphoma from T-lymphocytic leukemia is based on the degree of bone marrow involvement such that patients with ≥25% marrow blasts are designated as having leukemia.[
Lymphoma accounts for approximately 13% of all childhood cancers and is the most common cause of a mediastinal mass in children.[
T-LBL is a rare type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, with an overall incidence of ~0.1/100, 1000 inhabitants/y, and predominantly occurs in male adolescents or young adults.[
Furthermore, flow cytometry has been used by cytopathologists in various parts of the world for diagnosing various hematolymphoid malignancies in body fluids. It is a rapid, reproducible, sensitive, and quantitative method for immunophenotyping of cells, which utilizes a panel of fluorescent dye-tagged antibodies directed mostly against the cell surface markers. The combination of cytomorphology and FC also enables an accurate and rapid diagnosis of T-LBL on FNA and effusion cytology specimens.[
Effusion cytology is an easily accessible, inexpensive diagnostic tool in the diagnosis of malignancies. They may often be the first manifestation or may occur during the disease course. Its cytomorphological features when combined with immunocytochemistry can provide a fairly accurate diagnosis and an early breakthrough in patient management. The presence of tumor cells in effusion is not only associated with poor patient outcome but is also a predictor of disease relapse after chemotherapy and decreased survival.
References
Detection of rare parasite on Pap smear
A 49-year-old woman with vague lower abdominal pain on and off for 1 year presented for routine cervical cancer screening at cancer screening department of tertiary care hospital. She underwent a Pap cytology followed by colposcopy examination of the uterine cervix. The Pap cytology picture is shown in
(a and b) Pap smear showed many large superficial and intermediate squamous epithelial cells and few squamous metaplastic cells, many neutrophils, some histiocytes, and mixed bacterial flora. A single larval structure with long slender cylindrical body, brownish-yellow cuticle, blunt cephalic end, short yellowish oral cavity, and muscular esophagus (c) with pointed tail noted (Pap ×400). (d) Colposcopy showed two tiny puckered depressions each about 1 mm in diameter, two on the anterior lip (e). External OS (f). This is an open-access article distributed under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution-Non Commercial- Share Alike 4.0 License, which allows others to remix, tweak, and build upon the work non-commercially, as long as the author is credited and the new creations are licensed under the identical terms. ©2020 Cytopathology Foundation Inc, Published by Scientific Scholar
Enterobius vermicularis Wuchereria bancrofti Strongyloides stercoralis Synthetic fiber.
The correct cytological interpretation is
c.
The Pap smears were satisfactory for evaluation and showed transformation zone components. Many large superficial, intermediate squamous epithelial cells and few squamous metaplastic cells were identified. Numerous neutrophils, some histiocytes, and mixed bacterial flora were also present. Squamous epithelial cells showed non-specific reactive cellular changes associated with inflammation and bacterial infection. No evidence of intraepithelial lesion or malignancy was identified. In addition, a single rhabditiform larva of
The estimated global burden of generalized
Clinically, it is rare to find
The infection with
In the present case, the woman was retrospectively investigated after the result of Pap cytology. Blood count was within normal limits. Serial stool examinations were done on alternative days, as single stool examination fails to detect larvae in 70% of the cases.[
All stool reports were negative for larvae. There was no history of immunodeficiency syndrome. X-ray chest was normal. The possibility of contamination of cytology slides was excluded. The clinical history of walking barefoot on the beach side which may be suggestive of the route of entry of
At present, available diagnostic tests for
The larvae of Pointed tail Blunt cephalic end Long buccal cavity “V”-shaped notch near tail end. Answer is d. Primary mode of infection of Soil contaminated with larvae Contaminated food Blood Drinking water. Answer is a. Minimum number of hosts required by One Two Three Four. Answer is a. Rhabditiform larva of Short mouth and muscular esophagus Long mouth and non-muscular esophagus Small mouth without esophagus Long mouth without esophagus. Answer is a.
The cytopathologist should be familiar with the morphology of the parasitic larvae and have a high index of suspicion for the timely diagnosis and treatment of subclinical infection. In the absence of any screening and diagnostic test guidelines, the Pap cytology may be the only diagnostic tool.
References
Hyperchromatic-crowded groups (HCG) in pap smears
A 30-year-old female presented to the hospital for routine gynecological evaluation, and a ThinPrep Pap test was performed. She had regular menses but with a “heavy flow.” She also stated that her cervix had been described as “friable” on prior regular gynecologic examinations.
ThinPrep Pap test revealed hyperchromatic-crowded groups (HCG) with cytomorphology as seen in
Hyperchromatic-crowded groups (a and b) adjacent to benign squamous cells (PAP, ×40), (c) hyperchromatic-crowded group with intracytoplasmic mucin (PAP, ×40), (d) The biopsy specimen showed cribriform/microacinar architecture with confluent neoplastic glands (H and E, ×40).
Microglandular hyperplasia (MGH) Adenocarcinoma Arias Stella reaction Atypical glandular cells, not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS) Cervicitis/reactive endocervical cells.
Answer to question 1: Option D (AGC-NOS).
Pap smear showed HCG with focal pseudorosette formation. The cells showed high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios, hyperchromatic nuclei with coarse chromatin, nuclear membrane irregularities, ill-defined cell borders, and prominent nucleoli [
(a and b) Angulated, fragmented, infiltrative, and irregularly shaped glands with a conspicuous desmoplastic reaction (H and E, ×4 and ×10). (c and d) Malignant fused glands with cribriform architecture and a neutrophilic infiltrate (H and E, ×10 and ×40).
Immunohistochemistry for p16, monoclonal carcinoembryonic antigen, estrogen receptor, and progesterone receptor.
AIS Invasive endocervical adenocarcinoma (ADC) Invasive endometrioid ADC Metastatic ADC MGH
Answer to Question 2: Option B, invasive endocervical ADC.
The biopsy specimen showed cribriform/microacinar architecture with confluent neoplastic glands with stromal invasion and neutrophilic infiltrate with foci of nonneoplastic endocervical mucosa. The atypical glands were irregularly shaped, fragmented, and angulated with a conspicuous desmoplastic reaction. Mitotic activity was present. The tumor showed nuclear and cytoplasmic immunoreactivity for p16, immunoreactivity for mCEA,[
The frequency of endocervical ADC among all cervical neoplasias has increased in the last decades, from <10% to up to 27%, not only due to a real increase in annual incidence but also due to a decrease in frequency of invasive squamous cell carcinoma.[
Of the various histological subtypes of endocervical ADC, usual endocervical type is the most common, accounting for about 75% of all cervical ADCs.[
Cervical cytology preparations may show HCG with atypical features suggestive of malignancy including sheets and strips with nuclear crowding, overlap and/or pseudostratification, rare cell groups with rosettes (gland formations) or feathering, enlarged and elongated nuclei with hyperchromasia, coarse chromatin with heterogeneity, occasional mitoses and/or apoptotic debris, cells with increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratios, and ill-defined cell borders.[
HCG were first described by DeMay in 1995 and are a frequent occurrence in Pap tests.[
Endocervical-type ADC in cervical biopsy exhibits a variety of architectural patterns ranging from well differentiated to poorly differentiated.[
On IHC, endocervical-type ADC demonstrates strong and diffuse nuclear (and cytoplasmic) immunoreactivity for p16, cytoplasmic and membranous immunoreactivity for mCEA, and strong-to-weak nuclear immunoreactivity for PAX8.[
The tumor cells are nonimmunoreactive for PR and vimentin, with negative to weak positivity for ER.[
Q3. Which of the following HPV genotypes account for about 50% of cervical ADC cases?
HPV 16 HPV 18 HPV 31 HPV 33.
HPV 18 infection accounts for approximately 50% of cervical ADC cases.[
Q4. Which of the following is not a risk factor for cervical ADC?
HPV 16 infection HPV 18 infection Cigarette smoking Oral contraception use Overweight/obesity.
While cigarette smoking is a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, it does not appear to increase the risk of cervical ADC.[
Q5. Which of the following patterns of invasion are associated with the greatest risk of lymph node metastases?
Pattern A (Well-demarcated glands without destructive stromal invasion) Pattern B (Early destructive stromal invasion arising from well-demarcated glands) Pattern C (Diffuse destructive invasion with solid or confluent architecture).
Pattern C is described as a diffuse, destructive invasion. Tumors of this pattern carry a 23.8% risk of lymph node metastases. Pattern B consists of early destructive stromal invasion by well-demarcated glands and has a 4.4% risk of lymph node metastasis. Finally, pattern A involves well to moderately differentiated ADC containing well-demarcated glands with intraglandular growth, but no desmoplastic stromal reaction, and is not associated with lymph node metastases.[
Correct answers to additional questions:
Q2-b, Q3-b, Q4-c, Q5-c.
HCG are frequently seen in pap smears; however, care must be taken to distinguish benign from malignant causes. On cervical pap smears, these HCGs may be reported as atypical glandular cells, not otherwise specified (AGC- NOS). A correlation with clinical history and biopsy findings is necessary to make the final diagnosis. One of the most important abnormal glandular causes of HCG is endocervical invasive ADC. Of the various histological subtypes of endocervical ADC, usual endocervical type is the most common and HPV 18 alone accounts for about 50% of all such cases.
References
Cytomorphological diagnosis of rapidly growing, hard, non-tender thyroid lesion
A 65-year-old male presented with rapidly growing left side thyroid swelling for the past 45 days. He complained of breathlessness and difficulty in eating food for a month. The patient did not have any other significant clinical history. On examination, the swelling measured 8 cm × 6 cm was nontender and hard in consistency. Ultrasound findings suggested a hyperechoic lesion in the left thyroid lobe measuring 8 cm × 5 cm × 4 cm. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) stained smears show the following findings [
(a) Follicular neoplasm showing presence of repetitive prominent microfollicular pattern in a colloid free background (Giemsa, ×40), (b) medullary carcinoma small cell variant showing singly scattered cells with stippled chromatin in a background of magenta-colored amyloid (Giemsa, ×40), (c) papillary carcinoma showing a cellular smear forming syncytial aggregates and sheets focally with a distinct anatomical border and scanty viscous colloid (depicted by black arrow) also known as chewing gum colloid can be seen (Giemsa, ×10), (d) large, oval, and pale nuclei seen with pale powdered chromatin and presence of intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusion (depicted by black arrow) best appreciated in Pap stain (Papanicolaou, ×40).
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Follicular neoplasm Medullary carcinoma Papillary carcinoma Anaplastic carcinoma
Answer: Q1-d. Anaplastic carcinoma
A1 – In follicular neoplasms (FNs), there is a presence of prominent microfollicular pattern in a colloid free background [
(a) Highly cellular smear with a necrotic background (Giemsa, ×10), (b) giant mononuclear cells present with multilobated nuclei, irregular nuclear membrane, and coarsely clumped chromatin (Giemsa, ×40), (c) multinucleated cells (depicted by black arrow) present along with presence of necrosis (as depicted by orange arrow) (Giemsa, ×40), (d) abnormal mitosis (depicted by black arrow) can be appreciated in a background of highly pleomorphic malignant cells (Giemsa, ×40).
In medullary carcinoma (MC), cells show the presence of uniform, stippled (neuroendocrine) nuclear chromatin. There is the presence of amorphous pink/violet background material also known as amyloid [
In papillary carcinoma, the cells form syncytial aggregates and sheets with distinct anatomical borders. The colloid appears as scant, viscous, and stringy also known as chewing gum colloid [
In anaplastic carcinoma, the cells are highly pleomorphic and dispersed in a necrotic background. The cells have coarsely granular clumped chromatin, prominent nucleoli, and occasional intranuclear pseudoinclusions. Multinucleation, multilobation, and numerous mitotic figures are common.[
Q2: Which of the following is true regarding anaplastic carcinoma thyroid?
It shows the presence of amorphous pink/violet material (amyloid) in background It stains positive for calcitonin Any of the three major patterns can be seen – squamoid cell, spindle, and giant cell Nucleus shows the presence of stippled chromatin
Q3: Anaplastic carcinoma stains positive for
PAX8 Calcitonin Thyroglobulin None of the above
Q4: Which of the following is not true of anaplastic carcinoma thyroid?
It is the most aggressive variant among thyroid cancers It is the most common thyroid cancer It has a poor prognosis Both a and c are true
Q5: Most of the anaplastic carcinoma thyroid tumors are
Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Answers: Q2-c, Q3-a, Q4-b, Q5-d
A2 – On FNAC, any of the three major patterns can be seen – squamoid cell, spindle, and giant cell in anaplastic carcinoma thyroid.[
A3 – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (ATC) cells are non- reactive for thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1), calcitonin, thyroglobulin, and RET/PTC oncoprotein. PAX8 (also known as paired box gene 8) has a useful role and is positive in 79% of ATCs and in up to 92% of ATCs showing squamoid features[
A4 – ATC represents the most aggressive extreme of the clinical spectrum of thyroid epithelial neoplasms, being one of the most lethal human tumors. It constitutes <5% of clinically recognized thyroid malignancies, but it accounts for more than half of the deaths for thyroid cancer, with a mortality rate that is over 90% and a mean survival of 6 months after the diagnosis.[
A5 – Most of the anaplastic thyroid cancers are Stage IV thyroid tumors because they are very aggressive. The American Joint Committee on Cancer divides anaplastic thyroid cancer into three stages: IVA is characterized by an intrathyroid tumor, IVB primary tumor with eccentric spreading, and IVC with distant metastases.[
ATC is also known as undifferentiated, dedifferentiated, or sarcomatoid carcinoma. It is an uncommon, aggressive tumor which constitutes 2–5% of all thyroid tumors, but is invariably fatal.[
Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid can be differentiated from insular carcinoma thyroid as cells of insular carcinoma thyroid are arranged in three dimensional clusters in a background of single cells with high n: c ratio . Intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions, nuclear grooves and microfollicles with dense colloid may be seen in some cases.[
There are two theories of etiopathogenesis of the occurrence of anaplastic thyroid cancer. The first theory suggests that anaplastic thyroid cancer is due to the transformation of a well-differentiated thyroid tumor, while the second theory is
Clinical manifestations develop rapidly due to invasion of surrounding local tissues and metastasis into distant organs. Locally, these cancers show rapid anterior neck enlargement accompanied by dysphagia (40%), hoarseness (40%), and stridor (24%). Regional symptoms include enlarged lymph nodes (54%) and neck pain (26%). Systemic symptoms include anorexia, weight loss, and shortness of breath with pulmonary metastasis. Approximately 20–50% of patients already have distant metastases (80% in lung, 6–16% in bone, and 5–13% in brain) by the time it is diagnosed.[
Various studies have been conducted to understand the genetic and molecular aberrations in anaplastic cell carcinomas. The most common mutation is p53 (55%), followed by RAS (22%), BRAF (26%), b-catenin (38%), and PIK3CA (17%).
Treatment includes surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy or external beam radiation X ray Therapy (XRT). New treatment strategies include evaluating the benefits of vascular disrupting agents and tyrosine kinase inhibitors for advanced ATC with driver mutations, which can be targeted.[
Anaplastic carcinoma with poor prognosis is usually observed as Stage IV presentation. The patient can be accurately diagnosed based on adequate clinical history and FNAC findings, thus facilitating an early treatment and prolonging the life of the patient.
References
Endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration of a duodenal submucosal mass: Cytomorphological clues and radiological correlation
The patient was a 37-year-old male with a long-standing history of end-stage renal disease. He underwent workup for kidney transplantation, including a computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen. On CT, there was a 2.2 cm mass noted in the submucosa of the third portion of his duodenum. The patient denied any of the following symptoms including hypoglycemia, night sweats, diarrhea, or weight loss. The patient’s blood chromogranin A level was normal. An endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) was performed and EUS-guided fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy of the duodenal submucosal mass was obtained with rapid on-site evaluation (ROSE). The ROSE evaluation by the cytotechnologist was “adequate sample, favor neuroendocrine tumor.” The direct smears showed cells with morphology as showed in
(a) Fine needle aspiration of the duodenal wall mass with Papanicolaou-stained preparation shows low-power smears (×10) with some epithelioid cells arranged in a loose pattern. (b) Fine needle aspiration of the duodenal wall mass with Papanicolaou-stained preparation on high-power smears (×40) shows the epithelioid cells with abundant granular cytoplasm and eccentrically placed nuclei (plasmacytoid). (c) Fine needle aspiration of the duodenal wall mass with Papanicolaou-stained preparation on low-power smears (×20) shows clusters of uniform epithelioid cells arranged in a more organoid pattern. (d) Fine needle aspiration of the duodenal wall mass with Papanicolaou-stained preparation on high-power smears (×40) show the clusters of epithelioid cells with uniform nuclei and coarse nuclear chromatin pattern.
What is your interpretation?
A. Positive for neoplasm, consistent with neuroendocrine tumor (NET)
B. Positive for neoplasm, consistent with gastrointestinal (GI) stromal tumor (GIST), epithelioid type
C. Positive for malignancy, consistent with metastatic acinar cell carcinoma
D. Benign, consistent with ectopic (heterotopic) pancreas tissue.
The correct cytologic interpretation is: D. Benign, consistent with ectopic pancreas (EP) tissue.
The EUS-guided FNA shows modest cellularity with an interesting mixed smear pattern with loosely arranged epithelioid cells showing abundant granular cytoplasm. This population of epithelial cells is consistent with acinar cells. In other areas, there are more cohesively arranged (more organoid arrangement) epithelioid cells with moderate amount of granular cytoplasm. Occasional single epithelioid cells with plasmacytoid morphology are noted. This is compatible with normal islet cells [
The major differential diagnosis in this case is NET of the GI tract. The FNA of NET is usually richly cellular. Loosely cohesive sheets as well as many single tumor cells are often seen. The neuroendocrine cells are typically quite monotonous. Occasionally, significant pleomorphism (so-called “neuroendocrine atypia”) can occur. Cell block showing a single population of neuroendocrine cells and immunostains of neuroendocrine markers can be helpful to make the correct diagnosis.[ The main indication of EUS-guided FNA of GI submucosal mass is to rule in or rule out GIST.[ When epithelioid cells with abundant cytoplasm are identified in smears of a duodenal submucosal mass, the diagnosis of metastatic carcinoma, such as acinar cell carcinoma (ACC) of the pancreas, may be considered. However, metastatic ACC usually shows high cellularity with loose clusters and single tumor cells. Chromatin pattern is typically irregularly clumped and prominent nucleoli are often noted.[
Features favoring EP tissue are as follows:
Patient is asymptomatic Patient’s blood level of chromogranin A is normal Mixture of epithelioid cells, some with abundant granular cytoplasm (acinar cells), and some with moderate amount of cytoplasm and coarse nuclear chromatin (islet cells) The organoid arrangement of the uniform epithelioid cells.
This is quite a difficult case. The CT scan of the abdomen of the patient showed a definitive mass in the submucosal region of the duodenum [
(a) Computed tomography scan shows the duodenal wall mass (arrow). (b) gallium-68 DOTATATE positron emission tomography/computed tomography scan shows no uptake (arrow).
(a) Low-power view (×10) of the surgical excision of the duodenal wall mass showing a well-circumscribed mass (hematoxylin and eosin stain). (b) High-power view (×40) of the surgical excision of the duodenal mass showing ectopic pancreas (hematoxylin and eosin stain).
Q1. EP present as a subepithelial lesion (SEL) in the GI tract is being diagnosed with increasing frequency due to which of the following reason?
Most Eps are symptomatic New molecular markers of EP The incidence of EP is increasing due to dietary change The liberal use and improved quality in radiology and endoscopy.
Q2. Which of the following SELs, when diagnosed by EUS-FNA, most likely does NOT need surgical intervention if the patient is asymptomatic?
NET EP GIST Leiomyosarcoma.
Q3. Which of the following imaging diagnostic modality has the highest negative predictive value for NETs?
CT Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT scan EUS.
1. d; 2. b; 3. C
(d) The liberal use and improved quality in radiology and endoscopy is the main reason for more and more SELs, such as Eps, are detected.[ Most of the patients with Eps are asymptomatic To date, there is no specific molecular marker for EPs of the GI tract The incidence of Eps is quite steady and not related to dietary change. (b) EP is benign. When EP is diagnosed by EUS-FNA, a surgical excision is often not necessary when the patient is asymptomatic[
(c) (d) NET, GIST, and leiomyosarcoma are malignant or having malignant potential. Surgical intervention is often needed. (c) The NETs typically express somatostatin receptor (SSTR) on the cell membranes. There are five known SSTR subtypes, the most popular subtypes of which are 2 and 5. Somatostatin analog-conjugated single-photon emission computed tomography/CT (SPECT/CT) and positron emission tomography (PET)/CT radiopharmaceuticals are successfully used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT uses a radiolabeled somatostatin analog to bind somatostatin receptor-2, which is expressed on the surface of well-differentiated and moderately differentiated NETs. Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT has shown superior accuracy in detecting Grade 1 and 2 NETs. It has been reported in large clinical series that the false positive rate and false negative rate of gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT are 4.0% and 2.3%, respectively[ (b) (a) (d) Compared to gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/ CT, CT, MRI, and EUS are less specific in detecting GI submucosal NETs.[
EP, also known as heterotopic pancreas, is pancreatic tissue located outside the pancreatic parenchyma without vascular or ductal communication with the pancreatic gland. EP is rarely symptomatic, typically detected incidentally at surgery or autopsy. 85%–90% are in the upper GI tract.[
The diagnosis of intraluminal EP can be challenging, but it is important.[
Although rare, EP must be differentiated from other GI SELs which have malignant potential EUS-FNA of the GI SELs is an effective diagnostic tool to establish the diagnosis of EP Pathologists should be aware of the morphologic appearance of EP on EUS-FNA and a cell block with immunostains may be helpful to differentiate EP from NET Correlation with gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT is helpful to rule out NETs.
References
Pleomorphic neoplasm in a liver: A potential pitfall for misdiagnosis
A 58-year-old male presented to the emergency department with diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting for 2 weeks. The liver function tests, bilirubin, and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) were within normal limits. A computerized tomography (CT) scan showed multiple heterogeneous masses replacing the right liver lobe. No suspicious lesions were identified in other organs. A core biopsy was performed.
(a) Computed tomography scan showing multiple liver masses. (b) Touch imprints of the core biopsy showing pleomorphic cells, some with large nuclei, scattered dense intracytoplasmic rhabdoid inclusions, and occasional clear cytoplasmic vacuoles (Diff-Quik stain, ×400). (c) Touch imprints showing neoplastic cells forming rosettes (Diff-Quik stain, ×400). (d) Core biopsy showing pleomorphic cells arranged in sheets with rosettes and pseudoglandular formations. Some cells show rhabdoid features and cytoplasmic inclusions resembling mucinous vacuoles (H and E, ×400).
What is your interpretation?
Adenocarcinoma Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) Malignant rhabdoid tumor Pleomorphic well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor (NET) E. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC).
The correct cytopathologic interpretation is:
D. Pleomorphic well-differentiated NET.
The touch imprints of the core biopsy were highly cellular with the tumor cells arranged singly and loosely cohesive small groups with rare rosette-like formations. Striking nuclear pleomorphism and multinucleation were seen. Very large hyperchromatic nuclei, some with bizarre nuclear shapes, were scattered among smaller cells with low-grade, eccentric round nuclei. The nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios were low, and the abundant pink cytoplasm contained frequent large, dense, magenta-colored intracytoplasmic inclusions, resembling perinuclear cytoplasmic whorls seen in the rhabdoid cells [
(a) Touch imprint showing pleomorphic cells, some with large irregular nuclei. Some cells demonstrate dense pink cytoplasmic inclusions and inclusions resembling mucinous vacuoles (Diff-Quik stain, ×400). (b and c) Core biopsy shows sheets of pleomorphic cells, some with bizarre nuclei, intranuclear inclusions and dense cytoplasmic inclusions (H and E, b × 600, c × 400). (d) Synaptophysin is positive. (e) Chromogranin is positive. (f) MOC31 demonstrates diffuse membranous staining. (g) CDX2 shows patchy nuclear staining. (h) HepPar1 is negative. (i) Ki-67 proliferation index is low.
Further, diagnostic work-up revealed a markedly elevated serum chromogranin level (1481 ng/ml). Extensive examination of the patient including chest and abdominal CT scans and lower and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy failed to reveal a potential primary tumor origin. Whether this tumor was primary versus metastatic could not be determined with certainty. The absence of identifiable other primary sites suggested that this could be a primary hepatic neoplasm. However, due to the extreme rarity of primary liver NET and questions in the literature of the very existence of hepatic NETs, the tumor in our case was favored to represent metastasis from a small, undetectable, or “burned out” tumor likely originating in the gastrointestinal tract or extrahepatic pancreatobiliary system. The patient underwent palliative therapy with octreotide with a good initial response and symptomatic relief. However, his serum chromogranin level was steadily increasing. He was placed on an oral chemotherapy regimen. Whole-body surveillance scans continued to show stable large liver masses. The patient was lost to follow-up. Two years later, the patient’s friend informed our hospital that the patient developed severe nausea, vomiting, and bleeding and died at outside hospital.
Q2. NETs in the liver are most commonly:
Primary hepatic Metastatic from the pancreas, small intestine, or stomach Metastatic from large intestine Metastatic from lung.
Q3. According to the literature, the behavior of pleomorphic NETs comparing to adenocarcinoma is:
More aggressive Less aggressive Similar Unknown.
Q4. Electron microscopy demonstrates that rhabdoid inclusions in NET contain:
Round neurosecretory granules with a centrally located electron-dense core Collection of whorls of intermediate filaments mixed with neurosecretory granules Collection of electron-dense rhomboid-shaped crystals Collection of needle-shaped crystals.
Q2. (B); Q3. (B); Q4. (B)
Q2. (B) Most NETs in the liver are metastases from the gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, or lung. The liver is rarely the site of origin[
Q3. (B) NETs have a better prognosis than adenocarcinoma. Pleomorphic NETs do not seem to behave differently from conventional NETs[
Q4. (B) Ultrastructurally, the cytoplasm of NETs with rhabdoid features shows prominent smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, some mitochondria, and round neurosecretory granules with centrally located electron-dense core. The rhabdoid inclusions are composed of whorls of intermediate filaments mixed with variable number of neurosecretory granules.[
NETs comprise approximately 1%–2% of all gastrointestinal tumors. In the liver, they most commonly represent metastases from other sites.[
Well-differentiated NETs typically have characteristic morphologic features. On cytologic smears, the cells are poorly cohesive and distributed singly or in loose clusters. They tend to be monotonous, small, and uniform and have round, polygonal, or spindle shapes, scant-to-moderate cytoplasm, round or elongated nuclei, and granular, evenly distributed chromatin. In tissue sections, the cells are mainly arranged in trabecular, ribbon-like, acinar, nested, or solid patterns. The diagnosis is confirmed by expression of at least one neuroendocrine marker, such as chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56, or neuron-specific enolase. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) 2010 classification, gastroenteropancreatic NETs were graded based on the mitotic count and Ki-67 proliferation index and classified into three types: low-grade well-differentiated tumors (Grade 1, <2 mitoses/2 mm2, Ki-67 <3%), which typically demonstrate indolent behavior and generally have a good prognosis; well-differentiated tumors of intermediate grade (Grade 2, 2–20 mitoses/2 mm2, Ki-67 3%–20%); and poorly differentiated or high-grade neoplasms that have a poor prognosis (Grade 3, >20 mitoses/2 mm2,
Ki-67 >20%).[
On the other hand, one rare morphologic variant, pleomorphic NET, is not well-recognized and has features that can be easily confused with other neoplasms. Only rare studies, including a small series on pancreatic pleomorphic NET and case reports, have been published in the literature. These tumors show exaggerated atypia that may be misleading and suggestive of a high-grade malignancy. It is characterized by large cells, with enlarged or even gigantic nuclei, often with an irregular, bizarre shape, resembling degenerative changes of symplastic leiomyomas and ancient schwannomas. The chromatin may range from smudgy or finely stippled to coarsely clumped. Nucleoli, including macronucleoli and eosinophilic nucleoli, may be present. The cells often show rhabdoid features and demonstrate round, glassy, eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules displacing the nuclei to the periphery. These cytoplasmic inclusions have been previously shown to be negative for both vimentin and desmin,[
Pleomorphic NETs in the liver can also be confused with HCC. HCC is usually associated with cirrhosis and often has an associated elevation of serum AFP. HCC typically expresses one or more hepatocellular markers, including HepPar-1, arginase-1, AFP, and glypican-3, and is usually negative for neuroendocrine markers. However, HCC with neuroendocrine features and expression of markers of both hepatic and neuroendocrine differentiation in the same population of cells has been described.[
Pleomorphic NETs are very rare and may be misdiagnosed as adenocarcinoma, HCC, or other malignancies. Awareness of this unusual morphologic variant and its features is necessary to avoid misclassification and aid with the correct treatment and prognostication.
References
Frontal swelling in adult male: Cytological consideration of an uncommon diagnosis
A 53-year-old male presented with a complaint of swelling on the forehead extending up to the left supraorbital region for 1 year. There was past history history of trauma 1 year back. There was no history of pain, fever, weight loss, or tuberculosis. Local examination revealed a well-defined, non tender swelling, soft in consistency, with limited mobility measuring 2 cm × 2 cm [
(a) Frontal swelling extending up to the left supraorbital region. (b) Osteoclastic giant cells with dense inflammatory infiltrate and fungal hyphae (Pap, ×100). (c) Dense inflammatory cells with fungal hyphae (Giemsa stain, ×400).
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Microfilaria Fungal infection Malignancy Inflammatory cystic lesion.
Q1. b.
The correct cytopathological interpretation is (b) fungal infection. Fungal infection of the bones is unusual and generally presents in an indolent fashion. It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients. Fungal infection is devastating to patients if it is invasive in nature. Fungal osteomyelitisis an opportunistic infection which frequently enters the body due to decrease in host defense or through an invasive gateway, such as dental extraction.[
In the present case, noncontrast computed tomography (NCCT) brain revealed soft tissue density lesion showing CT attenuation in the left frontal scalp region extending to frontal sinus with erosive destruction [
(a) Noncontrast computed tomography brain demonstrates soft tissue lesion showing computed tomography attenuation in the left frontal scalp region extending to frontal sinus with erosive destruction. (b) Contrast enhanced computed tomography paranasal sinuses depicting heterogeneous enhancing soft tissue mass in the forehead with expansile lytic destruction of frontal bone. (c) Smear showing periodic acid–Schiffpositive fungal hyphae which are slender, septate, with acute angle branching (PAS, ×400).
On follow-up, the patient was put on antifungal therapy and repeat cultures of the lesion 3 weeks later were free from fungal elements.
Q2. Which of the following fungus have septate hyphae with acute angle branching?
Candida albicans Aspergillus niger Nocardia asteroides Rhizomucor sp.
Q3. Each of the following statements concerning mucormycosis is correct except –
The fungi that cause mucormycosis are transmitted by airborne asexual spores Cytology smears from a patient with mucormycosis show budding yeasts Ketoacidosis in diabetic patients is a predisposing factor to mucormycosis Hyphae typically invade blood vessels and cause necrosis of tissue.
Q4. Which are the reliable diagnostic modalities for fungal osteomyelitis?
Raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), elevated leukocyte count Culture on pus aspirate Direct evidence on FNA cytology smears All of the above.
Q5. Which of the following special stain combination can be used to diagnose fungal infection?
PAS and Ziehl–Neelsen (ZN) stain PAS and Grocott’s stain PAS and Alcian blue PAS and mucicarmine.
Q2. b; Q3. b; Q4. d; Q5. b
Q2. b Hyphae in aspergillosis are quite characteristic showing narrow septate hyphae of 3-6 m in size having dichotomous branching between 45° and 90°.
Q3. b Mucormycosis which belongs to
Q4. d Blood cultures should be obtained in all patients with osteomyelitis, but it is especially important in those patients where hematologic spread is a concern. Other useful laboratory values include elevated white blood cell count, certainly in the acute stages. Elevated ESR and elevated C-reactive protein may also be useful markers in the diagnosis and treatment of osteomyelitis. In case of fungal osteomyelitis, direct evidence of fungus on cytology smears allows rapid diagnosis.
Q5. b PAS and Grocott’s stains are the standard histological stains used to highlight the fungi. Alcian blue stains mucins but does not stain neutral mucins and mucicarmine is very specific for epithelial mucins. ZN stain used to identify acid-fast organisms.
Osteomyelitis mostly results from bacterial infection. However, fungi, parasites, and viruses can also affect bone and bone marrow. Since fungal infections involving bone occur infrequently, it can pose a diagnostic and therapeutic dilemma for those who are not familiar with its clinical presentation, thus leading to ineffective treatment or resolution. The clinical presentation of fungal osteomyelitis would be similar to the bacterial osteomyelitis.[
FNA is a reliable, simple, and quick technique for its diagnosis. The search for fungal profiles should be more aggressive in smears rich in inflammatory and foreign body giant cells or in cases with a strong clinical or radiological suspicion. In most cases, differentiation between the two most common offending fungi, i.e.,
Osteomyelitis of the facial bones is a complex problem which needs to be investigated thoroughly as there is no difference in clinical presentation between bacterial and fungal osteomyelitis unless accompanied by sinusitis. Fungal osteomyelitis is very rare, and appropriate treatment with antifungal regimen and timely surgical intervention, i.e., debridement, curettage, and sequestrectomy, will lead to successful resolution of the disease process. Failure to do so can result in a host of complications and consequences. Cytology, being an easily available, minimally invasive, and inexpensive procedure, can be used as initial diagnostic modality in cases of osteomyelitis.
References
A rare type of breast carcinoma
A 55-year-old postmenopausal female presented with painful breast mass for 1 year. The mass measured 2.5 cm × 2 cm and was located in the left upper quadrant. No axillary lymph nodes were palpable. Mammography showed an irregular mass with indistinct margins. Her medical and personal history was noncontributory. On palpation, the swelling was tender, mobile, and firm in consistency. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) findings revealed the following findings [
(a) Highly cellular smear-containing cellular tissue fragments with finger-like cords with a central core of homogenous basement membrane substance (Papanicolaou, ×10), (b) Pale, semitranslucent spherical globoid cluster consisting of homogenous basement membrane substance seen surrounded by loose epithelial cells usually devoid of cytoplasm (Papanicolaou, ×40), (c) cellular epithelial tissue fragment with a characteristic cup-shaped open at one end (Papanicolaou, ×40), (d) finger-like cord consisting of stromal material can be seen (Pap, ×40).
Collagen spherulosis Adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC) Colloid carcinoma Invasive cribriform carcinoma.
Q1: B
In ACC of the breast, the cytological pattern is identical as in other sites such as salivary glands and lungs. On FNAC, the smears are moderately cellular with two components: epithelial cells and acellular basement membrane material which appears as homogeneous spherical structures that are diagnostic and nearly unique to this tumor. The epithelial cells are relatively uniform with round-to-oval nuclei and have a coarse nuclear chromatin with prominent nucleoli. They are arranged in cohesive, often spherical or three-dimensional (3D) globoid clusters of various sizes surrounded by loose epithelial cells usually devoid of cytoplasm. The key to diagnosis is the identification of tumor cell clusters with central core of homogeneous basement membrane substance corresponding to the acellular component of the tumor.[
Collagenous spherulosis (CS) on fine-needle aspiration shows epithelial cells in clusters, scattered singly, with myoepithelial cells and spherules that appear magenta colored in May– Grunwald–Giemsa and light pink in hematoxylin and eosin-stained slides with numerous bare bipolar nuclei in the background.[
In colloid carcinoma, abundant background mucin which can be recognized macroscopically is characteristic. Atypical cells in small solid aggregates and single intact epithelial cells can be seen. The cells have mild-to-moderate nuclear atypia. Chicken-wire blood vessels can be seen.
In invasive cribriform carcinoma of the breast, FNAC shows cohesive sheets and three dimensional (3D) cribriform clusters of bland-looking and mitotically inactive ductal cells. Scattered multinucleated, osteoclast-like giant cells can be seen.[
As compared to its salivary gland counterpart, ACC of the breast has a bad prognosis ACC of the breast often metastasizes to lymph nodes It accounts for 4% of all breast carcinomas The secretions are periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) positive diastase resistant.
The most common site of metastasis is the lung Perineural invasion is common It stains positive for estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor It can be associated with microglandular adenosis.
Microglandular adenosis Adenomyoepithelioma Fibroadenoma All of the above.
A wide excisional biopsy was done and sent for histopathology. It was well encapsulated, firm, and gray white in appearance. Multiple sections were taken and examined. On microscopy, the cells were arranged in a cribriform pattern [
(a) Histological section showing cribriform pattern of adenoid cystic carcinoma with small dark, basal epithelial cell-lined cystic spaces filled with homogeneous material (H and E, ×10) (b) Higher power showing both true glandular spaces surrounded by luminal cells and pseudoluminal spaces surrounded by myoepithelial basal cells (H and E, ×40).
Q2: D, Q3: C, Q4: D
A2: ACC of the breast is a rare tumor that represents about 0.1% of breast malignancies.[
Two types of spaces are present in ACC. The first type contains myxoid stroma or collagen fibers. The second type is composed of glands that contain a granular secretion of diastase-resistant PAS-positive neutral mucosubstances.[
A3: As explained above, mammary ACC rarely involves the axillary lymph nodes. However, it can spread to distant sites without first involving local axillary lymph nodes. Distant metastases though uncommon most commonly involve the lungs. Perineural invasion is also rare, unlike salivary ACC and has been reported in up to 8% of cases. It is a basaloid tumor and is hormone (estrogen and progesterone) receptor negative. It is negative for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (Her2) and expresses one or more basal/ myoepithelial cell markers (CKs 5, 5/6, 14 and 17). ACC of the breast is associated with microglandular adenosis.
A4: ACC of the breast has been associated with various benign lesions, including microglandular adenosis, tubular adenosis, adenomyoepithelioma, and fibroadenoma.[
ACC of the breast is a rare tumor that represents about 0.1% of breast malignancies.[
Although ACC of the breast can occur between 30 and 90 years of age, it is more common in women in their fifth or sixth decade. It is rarely bilateral and has no predilection for any particular sides.[
Mammographically, these tumors may appear as asymmetric densities or irregular masses. Sonographically, they appear as well-defined, irregular, heterogeneous, or hypoechoic masses. The radiographic findings are nonspecific and can be misdiagnosed with benign lesions.[
Histologically, it consists of a dual cell population of luminal and myoepithelial-basal cells which may be arranged in one or more of three architectural patterns: tubular-trabecular, cribriform, and solid basaloid. There are two types of structures lined by these two different types of cells: true glandular spaces and pseudolumina.[
On the other hand, the myoepithelial-basal cells exhibit central oval nuclei and scant cytoplasm and form pseudolumina, which result from intraluminal invaginations of the stroma. They are immunoreactive for basal cytokeratins (CK5, CK5/6, CK14, and CK17), myoepithelial markers (p63, actin, calponin, and S-100 protein), vimentin, and EGFR.[
It has been classified into three grades based on the solid component: Grade 1, completely glandular and cystic; Grade 2, <30% solid component; and Grade 3, >30% of solid components. All Grade 3 tumors appear to behave like high-grade ductal breast cancer.[
As compared to its salivary analog, this tumor has an excellent prognosis. The 10-year survival rate is 90%–100%, and lymph node metastasis is rare, as well as distant metastases, which affect mainly visceral organs.
Based on its indolent clinical course and favorable outcome, the ACC of the breast is generally cured by breast-conserving surgery such as wide excision or quadrantectomy with or without radiotherapy. Mastectomy is recommended for invasive lesions when a cosmetically satisfactory excision is not possible, especially when the tumor has a high-grade pattern.
ACC is a rare breast tumor with an excellent prognosis as compared to its counterpart in other sites of the body. Most commonly, it presents as a painful subareolar mass. CS is an important differential and should be kept in mind while reporting ACC of the breast.
References
Liquid-based Papanicolaou smear: Unusual cytological features of a uterine mass
A postmenopausal elderly Filipino female presented with dyspnea and abnormal vaginal bleeding. A chest X-ray showed a right pleural effusion, which was concerning for malignant effusion. She underwent a positron-emission tomography scan, which showed an 18F-fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose-avid uterus. A liquid-based ThinPrep Papanicolaou (Pap) smear was performed. The images are shown in
(a) Abundant, watery tumor diathesis was present in the background (Pap, ×100); (b) Three-dimensional groups of glandular cells with enlarged nuclei, irregular chromatin, prominent nucleoli, and vacuolated cytoplasm were present (Pap, ×400); (c) Some clusters showed “bag of polys” appearance and clinging diathesis (Pap, × 400); (d). A second minor population of atypical spindled cells was present (Pap, ×400); (e) These atypical spindle cells exhibited nuclear hyperchromasia, irregular chromatin, variation in nuclear size, and were associated with tumor diathesis (Pap, ×400).
Q1. What is your interpretation of the above findings?
Atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance (AGUS) Suspicious for carcinosarcoma (malignant mixed Mülleriantumor [MMMT]) Adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified Squamous cell carcinoma.
1. b
Uterine carcinosarcomas, also known as MMMT, are uncommon uterine tumors that comprise malignant epithelial and mesenchymal components. In this case, smears showed a biphasic neoplasm composed of malignant glandular and spindled cell elements, which should raise the differential of a carcinosarcoma.
AGUS is an inappropriate diagnosis as the smear showed background tumor diathesis, as well as tumour cells with overtly malignant cytological features. Although adenocarcinoma is a fair differential diagnosis in this case, it does not explain the presence of an atypical spindle cell population. A spindle cell component of squamous cell carcinoma can also demonstrate the presence of atypical spindled cells. However, squamous cell carcinoma, particularly keratinizing variants, would show “tadpole” and “fiber” cells, along with a background containing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cells. Thus, option B is the favored answer.
The patient had a concurrent endometrial sampling performed with the liquid-based Pap smear. It showed a high-grade malignancy with a heterogeneous appearance [
(a) The endometrial biopsy demonstrated malignant epithelial elements composed of high-grade serous carcinoma (H and E, ×200); (b) Areas with napsin A positivity were present, in keeping with a component of clear-cell carcinoma (H and E, ×200); (c) Other areas demonstrated endometroid differentiation (H and E, ×200); (d) A portion of the tumor also showed malignant spindle cell in fascicles with marked nuclear atypia and mitotic activity (H and E, ×200); (e) These clustered groups of spindle cells were negative for MNF116 (not pictured) and positive for vimentin (×200).
1. Which of the following statements is true, given the appearance of a biphasic epithelial/mesenchymal neoplasm on a smear which is suspicious for uterine carcinosarcoma?
More than 25% of carcinosarcomas demonstrate an atypical or pleomorphic spindle cell component and a malignant glandular component on Pap smears. An abnormal Pap smear result in carcinosarcoma correlates with decreased median survival in a stage- independent manner. Conventional Pap smears are highly sensitive for detecting carcinosarcoma. A positive Pap smear in carcinosarcoma has no correlation with cervical involvement.
Q1: B
Carcinosarcoma of the uterine corpus is a rare malignancy, with an incidence of <2/100,000 women/year.[
Most cases that have reported the cytological features of uterine carcinosarcomas have been described on cervicovaginal smears. Endometrial cytology has not been widely used because of overlapping cells and blood contamination, but the introduction of liquid-based cytology that reduces contamination and forms a thin, uniform layer of cells has allowed a reassessment of the role of endometrial cytology in cytological diagnosis.[
While the liquid-based Pap smear remains mainly a screening test for cervical lesions, it does fortuitously detect high-grade endometrial cancers, including carcinosarcoma. For patients who have not undergone concurrent endometrial sampling, a Pap smear may be the only initial way an endometrial cancer is detected. Moreover, Pap smears have also been reported to contribute to the improved preoperative identification of patients with high-grade endometrial cancers, including carcinosarcomas.[
On correlating the findings of the endometrial biopsy with the Pap smear for this case, the atypical spindled cell population detected on cytology most likely corresponded to the malignant spindled cell component of the carcinosarcoma in the biopsy. However, it is certainly difficult to issue a confident diagnosis of carcinosarcoma, especially if the spindle cell population detected on cytology is scant or does not demonstrate frankly pleomorphic features. In our case, with the benefit of having a concurrent endometrial biopsy, a diagnosis of carcinosarcoma was made on the Pap smear. In the absence of a biopsy specimen, however, it would still be prudent to report the presence of a neoplasm with malignant epithelial and spindle cell features and raise the differential of carcinosarcoma. Other differentials may include endometrial adenocarcinoma with a spindle cell component, adenosquamous carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.[
The presence of a biphasic neoplasm composed of a malignant epithelial component and a spindled cell/mesenchymal component should raise the differential for a carcinosarcoma on a Pap smear. Where available, the Pap smear findings should be correlated with histological biopsy findings. While the Pap smear remains an insensitive tool for detecting carcinosarcoma, the presence of a positive Pap smear correlates with cervical involvement and stage-independent decreased survival.
References
Fine-needle aspiration of a right neck mass in a 10-year-old boy: Diagnostic clues and workup for tumors with small round blue cells
Enlarging right neck mass in 10-year-old boy since 1 month with 5-pound weight loss, new onset cough, and change in voice. Examination of the oral cavity showed 8 cm × 8 cm oropharyngeal mass involving the entire right tonsillar region crossing the midline with deviation of the uvula. Computed tomography studies showed involvement of the parapharyngeal space from skull base to the omohyoid area with encasing of carotid artery. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) [
(a) The aspirate showed a dyshesive population of small blue tumor cells (Diff-Quik, ×400). (b) Occasional cohesive nests and possible rosette formation were seen (Diff-Quik, ×400). (c) Cells with scant delicate cytoplasm had increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios and irregular nuclear contours with tendency for bare nuclei in the background without lymphoglandular bodies. (Diff-Quik, ×600)
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS), embryonal type Neuroblastoma Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma (ALL) Ewing sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET).
Q1. (a) RMS, embryonal type.
Based on the combination of cytomorphology, surgical biopsy with immunohistochemical staining, cytogenetic findings, and FISH analysis, final diagnosis was embryonal RMS.
A concurrent surgical biopsy contained sheets of malignant small round blue tumor cells. The tumor cells had hyperchromatic nuclei with mild to moderate pleomorphism and scant amounts of clear to eosinophilic cytoplasm. Mitoses were easily identified. The tumor cells showed some nesting with surrounding thin fibrous borders, but no alveolar pattern was appreciated [
The concurrent surgical biopsy showed similar-appearing cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant pale cytoplasm, arranged in small nests (H and E, ×400)
Immunohistochemical studies were performed on the biopsy. Myogenin and desmin were positive in scattered cells. CD56 was weakly positive [
Immunohistochemical staining for CD56 was weakly positive. Other neuroendocrine markers were negative
FISH analysis showed an extra copy of the 13q14/
Q2. Which is NOT a common diagnosis in the differential diagnosis for a small round blue cell tumor in a child?
Lymphoma Ewing sarcoma Rhabdomyosarcoma Squamous cell carcinoma
Q3. Which is the most common subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma in children?
Alveolar Embyronal Pleomorphic Spindle cell/sclerosing
Q2: D; Q3: B.
The family of small round blue cell tumors (SRBCT) encompasses a broad spectrum of neoplasms with similar cytomorphologic features. These tumors are characterized by generally uniform small to medium-sized, round, and relatively undifferentiated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. FNA of SRBCTs typically leads to highly cellular smears with abundant material for evaluation.
An initial branch point we used in the workup of this case was the age of the patient. In children, the differential diagnosis includes precursor lymphoid neoplasms (e.g., ALLs), neuroblastoma, Ewing sarcoma/PNET, and RMS.[
ALLs can have variable morphology, consisting of dyshesive small cells with high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios, darkly staining chromatin, and inconspicuous nucleoli to more pleomorphic blasts with lower nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios, irregular to convoluted nuclear contours, finely dispersed chromatin, and more prominent nucleoli.[
Neuroblastomas represent one end of a spectrum of neoplasms that exhibit variable degrees of maturation up to, and including, mature ganglion cells. Depending on the percentage of neuroblasts and mature ganglion cells, these neoplasms are then termed ganglioneuroblastoma or ganglioneuromas. Neuroblastomas have small round nuclei with “salt-and-pepper” chromatin, small nucleoli, nuclear molding and crowding, and scant pale cytoplasm. Ninety percent of these tumors occur in children younger than 8 years. The adrenal glands and paravertebral sympathetic ganglia are most commonly involved but the neck can be a primary or metastatic site of involvement.[
Ewing sarcoma/PNET is the most common bone/soft tissue sarcoma in children. Extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma can arise in the paraspinal area, and up to 25% of patients have metastases at the time of diagnosis. The conventional appearance is that of small- to medium-sized round cells that is densely packed and show nuclear molding. The cells are monomorphous, with dark granular chromatin, inconspicuous nucleoli, and scant delicate cytoplasm. Mitotic activity is high and necrosis is common. Unfortunately, Homer Wright rosettes (seen in histologic sections) are uncommon and particularly difficult to preserve in FNA samples.
RMSs are divided into embryonal, alveolar, pleomorphic, and spindle cell/sclerosing subgroups. The embryonal subtype is the most common in children, comprising 60% of RMS cases. Further, the head and neck region are the most common site for RMSs in children. These tumor cells are round or spindled, with high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratios, dark chromatin, and dense eosinophilic cytoplasm. Rarely, cross-striations can be appreciated on histologic sections.[
The presence of enlarged pleomorphic or strap-shaped cells with myogenic cytoplasm is helpful in prompting the pathologist to consider RMS in the differential. However, cytomorphology and immunohistochemistry are usually insufficient to further distinguish between the subtypes of RMS. Because treatment and prognosis can vary based on the subtype, it is important for pathologists and cytotechnologists to recognize the need to collect aspirate material for molecular testing and cytogenetic studies at the time of FNA.
For all authors, the authors declare that they have no competing interests.
SC carried out literature review, coordinated submission, and drafted and edited the manuscript.
SH collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript.
DYL collected clinical cases and edited the manuscript.
RCM photomicrographs and drafted the manuscript.
MVL collected cases, and helped draft and edit the manuscript.
NAM conceived of the quiz case, collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript.
All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (IRB) (or its equivalent).
ALL - Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
FISH - Fluorescence
FNA – Fine-needle aspiration
PNET - Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
RMS – Rhabdomyosarcoma
SRBCT - Small round blue cell tumor.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted through automatic online system.
References
A case of painful ankle swelling: Cytomorphological clues and pitfalls
A 45-year-old female presented with complaints of painful left ankle swelling for 2½ years following a trivial trauma in the left ankle. There was no fever or chronic cough. There was no discharge or sinus formation. X-ray of the left ankle joint and foot revealed osteoporosis with absorption of the left talus neck. Figures
(a) Smears showed epithelioid cell granuloma in a necrotic background (May-Grünwald-Giemsa, ×400). (b) Smears showed epithelioid cell collection (Papanicolaou, ×400)
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Sarcoidosis Tuberculosis Fungal infections Eosinophilic granuloma.
b. Tuberculosis.
Fine-needle aspiration cytology is a simple and safe outdoor procedure for the diagnosis of osteoarticular tuberculosis.[
Cytomorphologically, the differential diagnosis of osteoarticular granulomatous lesions includes sarcoidosis, eosinophilic granuloma, and fungal infections.[
Features favoring osteoarticular tuberculosis over other differential diagnoses are listed as follows:
Presence of epithelioid cell granulomas Degenerated inflammatory cells Dead bony fragments Necrotic background.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate was elevated with 56 mm at the end of the first hour. Her chest X-ray was within normal limits. Computed tomography (CT) scan showed multiple irregular lytic foci involving the talar, navicular, part of calcaneum, and lateral cuneiform with surrounding edema with coke-like sequestrum [
(a) Computed tomography scan showed multiple irregular lytic foci involving the talar, navicular, part of calcaneum, and lateral cuneiform with surrounding edema with coke-like sequestrum. (b) Trucut biopsy showed epithelioid cell granulomas along with Langhan's giant cells (H and E, ×400)
The patient was advised the World Health Organization directly observed treatment, short-course Category I anti-tubercular therapy (ATT) for a minimum period of 9 months. At 5-month follow-up, she has been doing well and responded to ATT.
Q2: Which of the following tarsal bone is most commonly involved by tuberculosis?
Navicular Talus Calcaneum Cuneiforms.
Q3: Which of the radiological type of tuberculosis of foot has the best outcome?
Cystic or osteolytic Spina ventosa Rheumatoid Subperiosteal.
Q2 (b); Q3 (a)
Q2 (b): Osteoarticular tuberculosis accounts for 2.2%–4.7% of all cases of tuberculosis in the Western countries and around 10%–15% of extrapulmonary tuberculosis cases.[
Q3 (a): Radiological findings include periarticular osteoporosis, marginal erosion, and joint space narrowing (Phemister triad).[
Chest radiography shows pulmonary disease in one-third to one-half of cases, but active pulmonary tuberculosis is infrequent.[
Chest radiography shows pulmonary disease in one-third to one-half of cases, but active pulmonary tuberculosis is infrequent.[
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) is a simple and safe outdoor procedure for the diagnosis of osteoarticular tuberculosis[ FNAB can easily be done in pathologically altered bone and useful diagnostic material can be obtained for cytomorphological examination[ Considering the fact that tuberculosis of ankle and foot has varied differential diagnosis clinically and radiologically and difficult to demonstrate or culture acid-fast mycobacteria, FNAB becomes important in such a setting for a definitive diagnosis.[
Presence of granulomas without necrosis Presence of only necrosis Difficult to demonstrate AFB in ZN stain due to paucity of AFB Cytomorphological mimickers of the lesions.
Handa
Focused differential diagnosis of osteoarticular tuberculosis:
Lymphocyte poor naked granulomas[ Clusters of palisading epithelioid histiocytes[ Multinucleated giant cells and various inclusions within the giant cells[ Clean background without any necrosis or other inflammatory cells[ Negative stains for fungi (PAS) and AFB (ZN stain).[
Highly cellular[ Langerhans’ cells having coffee-bean nuclei with nuclear groves and nuclear pseudoinclusions[ Prominence of eosinophils[ Absence of necrosis.[
Identification of a specific fungus[ Pus cells, lymphocytes, histiocytes, and foreign body giant cells in a necrotic background[ Positive staining of the fungi with PAS or Gomori's methenamine silver stains.[
Advanced molecular methods such as real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) have shown very promising results for the early and rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis, due to its detection capability in various clinical samples with bacilli load as less as 1–10 bacilli.[
Tuberculosis of talar bones is an uncommon form of osteoarticular tuberculosis. Diagnostic and therapeutic delay may occur due to uncommon site, lack of awareness, and ability to mimic other diseases clinically and radiologically. Thus, a prompt diagnosis and management is necessary to reduce any functional morbidity. The role of FNAB thus becomes important in such a setting for an early definitive diagnosis.
The author(s) declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and take public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
BD carried out the procedure, interpreted the results, and drafted the manuscript.
AHD interpreted the results and helped draft the manuscript.
P helped to carry out the procedure, collected the details of the case, and helped draft the manuscript.
CBG participated in the interpretation of the results and participated in its design and coordination.
JSN participated in its design and coordination.
AR involved with the management and helped draft the manuscript.
All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
AFB- Acid fast bacilli
ATT - Anti-tubercular therapy
CT - Computed tomography
FNAB - Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
MRI - Magnetic resonance imaging
PAS - Periodic-acid Schiff
RT-PCR - Real-time-polymerase chain reaction
ZN - Ziehl-Neelson.
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References
A diagnostically difficult case of a cellular pleural fluid: Morphology, immunohistochemistry, and fluorescence in situ hybridization study
An 80-year-old woman presented with complaints of nausea, dyspnea, and fatigue for the past 4 weeks. As per patient, she has a history of melanoma. She did not report any fever or chills. Radiologic evaluation showed right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis was performed. Cytopathologic findings of the pleural fluid are shown in
(a-c) Cytomorphology of pleural effusion (Pap, ×200)
Which of the following entities
Metastatic adenocarcinoma Atypical cell groups favor reactive mesothelial cells Malignant mesothelioma Metastatic melanoma Lymphoma.
e. Lymphoma.
The differential diagnosis between reactive mesothelial proliferation, malignant mesothelioma (MM), and metastatic adenocarcinoma can be challenging. This pleural fluid specimen is relatively cellular, with one predominant population of cells. These cells have abundant dense perinuclear cytoplasm, centrally located nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and relatively normal nuclear-cytoplasmic (N/C) ratio, which suggest that these cells are mesothelial cells. Many large clusters are present, with scalloped, flower-like outlines. In both smear sample and cell block, atypical cells with binucleated or multinucleated cells are commonly seen. Therefore, MM is on the top of the differential diagnoses.
Melanoma is less likely the cause, in this case. MM cells seen in pleural effusion specimen usually have abundant cytoplasm with prominent nucleoli that can mimic mesothelial cells. However, the melanoma cells usually do not form cell clusters, and they often contain pigment and intranuclear pseudoinclusions. However, as the patient has a reported history of melanoma, it should not be immediately excluded.
Lymphoma is not in the differential diagnosis. Unlike lymphoid neoplasms, the cells in this patient's sample are cohesive with abundant cytoplasm and epithelioid morphology.
Computerized tomography scan of the chest with intravenous contrast after the patient underwent thoracentesis revealed a 7 mm smooth nodule abutting the anterior pleural space of the right middle lobe. Furthermore, a 3 mm nodule is in the anterior right upper lobe. Subsequently, the patient underwent right pleural biopsy through video-assisted thoracoscopic (VAT) surgery. The thoracic cavity was inspected, and multiple plaques were noted over the pleura, as well as some studding over the lung and diaphragm.
Q1. Which of the following immunohistochemistry (IHC) panels is most appropriate as first line markers to differentiate MM from adenocarcinoma?
Calretinin, CK7, CD56, and CD45 Cytokeratin 5/6 (CK5/6), CAM 5.2, CK7, and thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) Calretinin, WT-1, Ber-Ep4, and MOC-31 Calretinin, CK7, TTF-1, and MOC-31 Calretinin, CK 5/6, WT-1, and TTF-1.
Q2. Which of the following features does not favor MM over reactive mesothelial proliferation?
Numerous large cell clusters with scalloped contour Cell in cell engulfment Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) and glucose transporter-1 (GLUT-1) negativity Loss of BRCA1-associated protein 1 (BAP1) Giant atypical mesothelial cells.
Q3. Which of the following genetic markers is not associated with MM?
BRAF V660E p16/CDKN2A BAP1 NF2.
Q1 (c); Q2 (c); Q3 (a).
Q1 (c) - Calretinin, WT-1, Ber-Ep4, and MOC-31: The correct answer is C. In many cases, morphology alone is not sufficient to make a definitive diagnosis. IHC stains are very useful in differentiating metastatic adenocarcinoma from MM and establishing the primary origin of a metastatic adenocarcinoma.
IHC panels should include at least two markers for metastatic adenocarcinoma and two for MM.[
Q2 (c) - EMA and GLUT-1 negativity: The correct answer is C. The diagnosis of MM sometimes is challenging as reactive mesothelium can resemble neoplastic mesothelium. Generally speaking the presence of numerous large cell clusters (>50 cells) with scalloped border is characteristic of MM.[
IHC markers might be useful in distinguishing between MM and benign mesothelial proliferation. EMA, p53, insulin-like growth factor messenger RNA-binding protein 3 (IMP3), and GLUT-1 appear to be preferentially expressed in neoplastic mesothelium.[
Recently, mutations of BAP1 gene were reported in hereditary and sporadic MM.[
Q3 (a) - BRAF V660E: The correct answer is A. As BRAF v660E mutations are associated with melanoma, colorectal cancers, and other malignancies but not MM.
Many genetic changes have been detected in MM. The most common genetic alterations include inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene NF2, homozygous deletion of the 9p21 locus, and loss of BAP1.[
Evaluation of the cytology specimens, which contained numerous clusters of mild to moderately atypical epithelioid cells in cohesive groups of variable sizes, was suspicious for a malignant process. Biopsy from the pleura demonstrated chronic fibrinous pleuritis with an atypical mesothelial proliferation in a solid and glandular/cribriform pattern with superficial invasive growth pattern. Tumor cells showed loss of BAP-1 staining [
(a) Pleural biopsy (H and E, ×100), (b) malignant cells lost BRCA1-associated protein 1 immunoreactivity (×100), (c) pleural biopsy (H and E, ×200)
Cell block from pleural fluid (a) H and E, ×40 and (b) H and E, ×200 (b) immunohistochemical stain (c) BerEp4 ×100, (d) Calretinin ×100
Fluorescence
MM is a rare primary serosal malignancy with an incidence 1–6/100,000 and accounts for <2% of malignant pleural effusion.[
One major pitfall in attempting cytology-based effusion diagnosis of MM is relatively low sensitivity, ranging from 32% to 76%.[
In pleural fluid, the major differential diagnoses include MM, metastatic adenocarcinoma, and reactive mesothelial proliferation.
In pleural fluid, numerous large clusters with prominent atypical cells and/or conspicuous atypical cells suggest malignant effusions. Metastatic adenocarcinoma is more common than primary MM.
The key feature for metastatic adenocarcinoma is detecting a foreign “second” population of cells in the pleural effusion, which are morphologically malignant Cell clusters formed by mesothelial cells often show scalloped borders, while clusters formed by adenocarcinoma cells are more likely to have smooth or cannonball-like contours. Adenocarcinoma cells can also form acinar or glandular structures, with the central lumen containing secretion Mesothelial cells contain relatively normal nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio; on the contrary, adenocarcinoma cells usually show increased N/C ratio and some degree of pleomorphism Intracytoplasmic vacuoles of mesothelial cells appear empty or contain hyaluronic acid, while adenocarcinoma cells contain mucin that can be stained with mucicarmine IHC stains are very helpful
Mesothelial markers: Calretinin, WT-1, D2-40, CK5/6, HBME-1, and thrombomodulin[ Markers for adenocarcinoma include CEA, Ber-Ep4, BG-8, B72.3, and MOC-31[ Depending on the differential diagnosis, additional markers can be added to the diagnostic panel[
TTF-1 and Napsin A are particularly useful for lung primary carcinoma CDX2 and CD20 can help distinguish gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma PAX-8 and ER can suggest gynecologic primary site Mammaglobin, GATA-3, and GCDFP-1 are compatible with metastatic breast carcinoma. The immunocytochemical evaluation of effusion fluids can be facilitated by a strategy, “subtractive coordinate immunoreactivity pattern"
The cell blocks of the effusion fluids are serially sectioned, oriented identically, and labeled sequentially. Therefore, the same group of cells can be feasibly identified and evaluated for variable markers. This approach greatly assists the confirmation of the “second foreign population.”[
The presence of large cell clusters (>50 cells per group) is probably the most useful clue for MM. On the contrary, benign mesothelial cell proliferation tends to disperse as isolated cells, forming monolayer cell aggregates or small clusters Malignant mesothelial cells tend to be larger than reactive cells with macronucleoli and marked cytologic atypia. Reactive mesothelial cells can be very atypical with prominent nucleoli and morphologically indistinguishable Ancillary tests could be helpful
IHC markers which favor MM when positive: EMA, p53, IMP3, and GLUT-1 and when negative: BAP1[ IHC markers which favor reactive mesothelial cells when positive: Desmin[ Detection of CDKN2A (9p21) deletion through FISH study. In the appropriate context, homozygous deletion of CDKN2A can support the definitive diagnosis of MM.
One of the most common genetic mutations of MM is the homozygous deletion of the 9p21 locus, harboring p16INK4A (also called CDKN2A), p14ARF, MTAP, and p15INK4. The homozygous deletion of p16/CDKN2A should not be present in reactive mesothelial proliferation and is present in up to 80% of MM.[
The BAP1 gene is a tumor suppressor gene located on chromosome 3p21, encoding a deubiquitinating enzyme, which regulates cell cycle, cellular differentiation, transcription, and DNA damage response.[
BAP1 protein loss associated with homozygous BAP1 deletion is only seen in MMs.[
The finding of homozygous deletion of p16 by FISH or loss of BAP1 by IHC can be very useful diagnostic tools in differentiating benign mesothelial proliferation from MM. A drawback of p16 FISH and BAP1 IHC staining is that they have relatively low sensitivity and cannot be used to exclude the diagnosis. Co-testing with both the above-mentioned ancillary techniques improves the limited sensitivity of the individual tests.
The differentiation between MM and reactive mesothelial proliferation is diagnostically challenging due to their overlapping cytological features. FISH for p16/CDKN2A deletion and loss of BAP1 by IHC are useful tests for confirming the diagnosis of MM.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
All the authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
As this is a quiz case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board.
BAP1: BRCA1-associated protein 1
EMA - Epithelial membrane antigen
FISH - Fluorescence
GLUT-1: Glucose transporter-1
IHC - immunohistochemistry
IMP3: Insulin-like growth factor messenger RNA-binding protein 3
MM - Malignant mesothelioma.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Myoepithelioma of soft tissue in the gluteal region: Diagnostic pitfall in cytology
A 14-year-old male presented with gradually enlarging, tender swelling in the left gluteal region for 3 months with a history of fall down from school bench. On examination, it was suspected as hematoma in the left gluteal region. On palpation, swelling was well-circumscribed firm with normal overlying skin. Ultrasonography (USG) showed well-defined, heterogeneously hyper-echoic lesion measuring approximately 3.5 cm × 5.7 cm noted in the subcutaneous plane. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed well-defined lobulated lesion in subcutaneous plane in paramedian location in the left gluteal region. Anteriorly, it reached up to coccyx with no deeper extension/communication. Figure
Fine needle aspiration of the thigh lesion. (a) Cytology shows loosely arranged round to oval cells having eosinophilic cytoplasm in the fibrillary and myxoid background (H and E,100 ×). (b) Many loosely arranged cuboidal to columnar cells having polar eosinophilic cytoplasmic process in fibrillary background (H and E, 100). (c) Cytology showing oval and spindle cells having mild cytologic atypia (H and E, 400). Inset (zoomed) cells arrangement in rosette fashion (arrow). (d) Round to oval cells having plasmacytoid nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm in the fibrillary and myxoid background (H and E, 100)
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Extradural myxopapillary ependymoma Chordoma Myoepithelioma of soft tissue Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
The correct cytopathology interpretation is:
C. Myoepithelioma of soft tissue.
Cytology (FNAC) is a simple and minimally invasive method for evaluating soft tissue lesions. Myoepithelial cells are normally contractile epithelial cells surrounding the acini and ducts of glands. Myoepithelioma is defined as tumor composed of myoepithelial cells with or without ductal structures.[
On Cytology, the smears were moderately cellular, showing loosely arranged clusters, sheets, isolated cells, rosette-like arrangement with fibrillary material within. The cells were round to oval and spindle shaped with many showing plasmacytoid appearance with bland round nuclei and finely distributed chromatin. Some cells had fibrillary tapering eosinophilic cytoplasmic process. Cytodiagnosis of myoepithelioma of soft tissue or extradural myxopapillary ependymoma was offered and advised biopsy/excision.
Rarely, myxopapillary ependymoma presents as extradural lesion as presacral/retrosacral soft tissue arising from ependymal rest. MRI revealed features as shown in Figure
(a) Magnetic resonance imaging showing well-defined lobulated lesion shows heterogeneous enhancement on postcontrast study, approximately size (27 mm × 43mm × mm) is noted in subcutaneous plane, paramedian location in the left gluteal region. Anteriorly, it lesion reaches up to tip coccyx. (b) The lesion is hypointense onT1-weighted image. (c) The lesion is heterogeneously hyperintense onT2-weighted image. (d) Gross photograph shows subcutaneous tumor Heterogeneous gray-white and glistening brown cut surface
Abundant metachromatic myxoid background- “Physaliferous cell” which features bubbly cytoplasm and an eccentric, round and bland nucleus Other cell types may have a fusiform or stellate morphology, uniform eosinophilic cytoplasm without bubbles.
Usually yields highly cellular smears, slim columnar cells are arranged radially around vascularized stromal cores and globules of hyaline-myxoid appears as intense metachromatic material The cells are loosely overlapped and display distinctive bipolar and unipolar processes. Nuclei have finely granular chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli.
Abundant myxoid background, variable arrangement of tumor cells, clusters, branching, strands, cell balls and dispersed cells Chondroblastoma like nuclei with nuclear folds or indentations (coffee bean nuclei). Cells are variably rounded, elongated and fusiform. Nuclei are rounded, ovoid or spindle-shaped.
Preoperative cytologic diagnosis of soft-tissue myoepithelioma is very difficult and challenging due to above-mentioned morphologic mimics, leading to diagnostic dilemma and pitfalls. Cytology of soft tissue myoepithelioma shows rosette with fibrillary material completes the morphological mimicry of extradural myxopapillary ependymoma. It is important to recognize the lesion correctly as treatment implications differ.
Chordoma -
Extradural myxopapillary ependymoma- complete surgical excision, may need adjuvant radiotherapy.
Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma - conservative surgery.
Q2: Which age group malignant myoepithelial tumor frequently occur?
0–18 years (pediatric age group) 20–60 years (adult age group) Above 65 years (elderly age group) All of the above.
Q3: Following immunohistochemistry (IHC), which IHC marker is NOT expressed in myoepithelioma of soft tissue?
S-100 Pan-cytokeratin Vimentin Desmin.
Q4: Which gene rearrangement is commonly seen in myoepithelioma of soft tissue?
WT1 PLAG1 EWSR1 FUS.
Q2: A; Q3: D; Q4: C.
Q2. A) The age incidence of these tumors ranged from 3 to 83 years, with a mean age of 38 years.[
Q3. D) Most sensitive IHC markers for soft tissue myoepithelioma include wide-spectrum cytokeratin (nearly 100%), S-100 (87%), calponin (86%), and glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) (50%). Desmin is usually negative.[
Q4. C:) Recent cytogenetic studies demonstrated EWSR1 gene rearrangement detectable in 45% of myoepithelial tumors of soft tissue. The common fusion partner genes include PBX1, POU5F1, and ZNF444 which differ from translocations involving PLAG1 and HMGA2 genes reported in myoepithelial tumors of the salivary glands.[
The patient underwent complete surgical excision. The specimen consisted of a well circumscribed ovoid firm gray-white mass. The cut surface showed tan whitish brown mass with glistening myxoid surface [
Histopathology of the thigh lesion. (a) Tumor cells arranged in lobules in myxoid background separated by fibrous septa (H and E, 200). (b & c) Tumor cells arranged in cords, trabeculae, and rosette like arrangement in the myxoid and fibrillary background (H and E, 400). (d) Tumor cells arranged in rosette with fibrillary material within (H and E, 400)
In 1874, Minssen first used the term mixed tumor to describe tumors of the parotid gland with both epithelial and mesenchymal features.[
Hornick and Fletcher in their series described 101 cases where majority arose in the lower limb/limb girdles followed by upper limb/limb girdles, head, neck and trunk. Out of which, only 5 (5.0%) tumors were located in the buttock area.[
Very few cases of cytodiagnosis of myoepithelioma of soft tissue are reported in literature. Wang
In the recent WHO classification of softtissue tumor (2013), myoepithelioma is placed under the category- tumors of uncertain differentiation (intermediate–rarely metastasizing variety). Although most myoepitheliomas of soft tissue are benign, local recurrence rate is 20%. Out of the 33 histologically benign cases with follow-up, 6 (18%) cases locally recurred, but none metastasized (mean follow-up of 36 months).[
Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice for benign myoepithelial tumor of soft tissue. In the present case, no cytological features of malignancy were identified so advised for routine yearly follow-up after complete excision.
Myoepithelioma of soft tissue is clinically heterogeneous tumors, with varied clinical behavior, and several observed histology, cytogenetic findings, and molecular signatures. Cytopathologist should be aware of bland nature of round, epithelioid and plasmacytoid cells in myxoid and fibrillary background to hit the correct diagnosis.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE. Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board.
EMA - Epithelial membrane antigen
FNAC - Fine needle aspiration cytology
GFAP - Glial fibrillary acidic protein
H and E - Hematoxylin & eosin
IHC - Immunohistochemistry
MRI - Magnetic resonance imaging
USG - Ultrasonography
WHO - World health organization
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Pleural effusion in a 7-year-old child - with unique cells
A 7-year-old male presented with 2-month history of fatigue, pallor, and weight loss and 1-month history of fevers and mucositis. He then developed rash in the form of small papules on his face, hands, and feet, diagnosed to be viral infection. He was started on acyclovir. He continued to be ill with an erythematous rash on his face and hands with intermittent cough. Computed tomography scan of the chest revealed multilobar bilateral foci of pulmonary consolidation and diffuse adenopathy. Later, he acutely developed respiratory distress and was found to have a moderate-to-large right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracocentesis yielded yellow cloudy fluid with elevated cell count and neutrophils, consistent with an exudate. Culture of the fluid grew streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. Blood culture was negative.
Our laboratory received 7 ml of yellowish pleural fluid. Papanicolaou-stained slide and cell block showed numerous neutrophils, macrophages, and apoptotic debris. Numerous bacteria, lymphocytes, and plasma cells were also present in the background [
ThinPrep slide of pleural fluid showing three-lobed neutrophil containing intracytoplasmic round basophilic homogeneous body with smooth borders forming lupus erythematosus cell (red arrow) (Papanicolaou stain, ×100)
Consistent with bacterial infection Consistent with viral infection Consistent with an autoimmune disorder Nondiagnostic.
The correct answer is c:
Cytology preparation showed many lymphocytes and bacteria along with numerous neutrophils and macrophages. Some of these neutrophils were seen containing intracytoplasmic round basophilic homogeneous bodies with smooth borders pushing the nucleus to the periphery [
Tart cell. Cell block showing round bodies within the macrophage pushing the nucleus to periphery forming tart cell (red arrow). These homogeneous bodies can be seen in clusters forming conglomerates along with many bacteria in the background (H and E, ×100)
Q1. What is a LE cell?
A neutrophil containing intracytoplasmic homogeneous body of denatured nuclear material of another cell A macrophage which has engulfed the denatured nuclear material of another cell A macrophage which has phagocytosed the lymphocytes A macrophage which has phagocytosed the erythrocytes.
Q2. The most specific finding of SLE in body fluids is
Both LE cells and tart cells Both tart cells and histiocytes Both LE cells and erythrocytes LE cells only.
Q3. The diagnosis of SLE requires the following
Clinical features and serologic criteria Both serologic criteria and Cytological and/or histopathological features.
Q1. a; Q2. d; Q3. a.
The patient had been seen multiple times at primary care and had been diagnosed with acute otitis media and viral infection. However, he responded poorly to antibiotics and antiviral therapy. Concurrent immunologic work-up revealed increase in inflammatory markers, C-reactive protein 127.1 mg/L (normal range, 0.3–5.0 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate 60 mm/h (normal range, 0–20 mm/h), positive extractable nuclear antigen Smith antibodies 5 AI (normal ≤0.9 AI), ribonuclear protein antibodies 1.9 AI (normal ≤0.9 AI), positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) 1:1280 (normal, 1:80) of homogeneous pattern, and anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (dsDNA) antibodies >1000 IU/mL (normal, ≤30 IU/mL). Serology for anti-Ro/La antibodies was negative. Complement C3 was low at 41 mg/dL (normal range, 80–180 mg/dL) with normal complement C4 of 12.6 mg/dL (normal range, 10–45 mg/dL).
The cytological findings combined with the physical presentation and positive serology for SLE were diagnostic for SLE. The child was started on prednisone and showed a rapid clinical response.
The occurrence of pleural effusions is less frequent in children than in adults and can be caused by various infectious, inflammatory, and neoplastic diseases. Community-acquired bacterial pneumonia remains the most common infectious cause of childhood pleural effusion.[
SLE is an autoimmune chronic inflammatory disorder, primarily affecting women. SLE has varied symptomatology and can involve any organ of the body. Most often patients present with “butterfly” malar rash and arthralgias.[
Pleuropulmonary involvement in the form of pleural effusion is an infrequent early presentation of SLE. Pleural effusion mostly occurs late during the course of the disease but can be seen in 1% patients as an initial presentation.[
Our patient presented with rash, fever, and developed bilateral pleural effusions during the hospital course. Other differential diagnosis includes bacterial infections, tuberculosis, nephrotic syndrome, viral infections, congestive cardiac failure, and neoplasms. Although serology was positive for the markers of SLE, infection was the most common differential of pleural effusion. The patient responded poorly to antibiotics and antiviral drug therapy.
Lupus pleuritic effusion is typically an exudate as was present in our case. Cytology revealed the
Tart cells are macrophages or histiocytes which have phagocytosed nuclear debris of other cells. The presence of ‘tart cells’ is not specific for SLE. These can also be seen in patients with lymphomas and metastatic carcinoma.[
The
Our case was a male child who presented with rash and pleural effusion. The predilection for SLE is much less common in males than females. Furthermore, infection being the most common cause for pleural effusion in children, this case emphasizes the importance of examination and recognition of LE cells morphology in pleural fluid as a clue to the cause of pleural effusion in children.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE. Neha Gupta designed the case report and drafted the manuscript. Kasturi Das interpreted the cytology smears, arrived at the final cytologic diagnosis, and supervised the design of the case report. All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional review Board (IRB).
ANA - Antinuclear antibodies
CRP - C-reactive protein
CSF - Cerebrospinal fluid
dsDNA - Double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid
ESR - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
LE - Lupus erythematosus
PAP - Papanicolaou
RNP - Ribonuclear protein
SLE - Systemic lupus erythematosus.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Large retroperitoneal soft tissue tumor: A cytopathological diagnosis
A 65-year-old male presented to the surgery outpatient department with complaints of abdominal pain, gradually increasing abdominal size and bilateral pedal edema for the past 8 months. On perabdominal examination, a large vague abdominal mass was found to be measuring approximately 30 cm × 25 cm with the upper pole extending up to the surface of liver and lower pole extending to the upper level of pelvic brim.
Further, contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CECT) abdomen revealed a large retroperitoneal mass lesion of size 31 cm × 22 cm × 20 cm with areas of fat density within and showed heterogeneous postcontrast enhancement causing displacement of right kidney, pancreas, and bowel loops, most likely suggestive of liposarcoma [
(a) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography abdomen showing a large retroperitoneal mass lesion of size 31 cm × 22 cm × 20 cm with areas of fat density within and revealing displacement of right kidney, pancreas, and bowel loops. (b) Highly cellular smear composed of fragments of oval to spindle-shaped cells embedded in myxoid matrix (Giemsa ×100). (c) Smear showing few binucleated, multinucleated bizzare cells along with atypical mitosis and lipoblast. [Pap ×200]. (d) Atypical lipoblasts having multilobated and indented nuclei with multiple vacuoles in the cytoplasm in a myxoid background (Giemsa ×400)
Fine-needle aspiration cytology.(FNAC) of the abdominal mass was done from multiple sites which yielded thick cellular aspirate. Multiple smears prepared were air dried and fixed in 95% ethyl alcohol and subsequently stained with Giemsa and Papanicolaou stain, respectively.
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Chordoma Myxofibrosarcoma Well-differentiated liposarcoma Pleomorphic liposarcoma.
Ans 1: Option d – Pleomorphic liposarcoma (PLS).
Smears examined showed high cellularity comprising highly pleomorphic malignant cells arranged in large sheets embedded in myxoid matrix, loosely cohesive clusters, and groups as well as many singly dispersed [
Exploratory laparotomy was done and the tumor was excised and was sent for histopathological examination. Grossly, a large encapsulated soft tissue mass was received, measuring 30 cm × 24 cm × 18 cm [
(a) Gross image of the large encapsulated soft tissue mass, measuring 30 cm × 24 cm × 18 cm and showing irregular and bosselated surface covered by fascia. (b and c) Sections showing cells with moderate to marked pleomorphism including multinucleated cells, atypical lipoblasts in a myxoid background (H and E, ×200)
Q2: What is your interpretation after overall CECT, cytological, and histopathological examination:
Atypical lipoma Well-differentiated liposarcoma Pleomorphic Liposarcoma (PLS) Myxoid liposarcoma.
Ans 2: option c – Pleopmorphic liposarcoma (PLS).
Sections showed malignant spindle cell tumor comprised spindle cells with intervening thin-walled capillaries in a myxoid background. Also seen were cells with moderate to marked pleomorphism including many multinucleated cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, brisk mitosis, and areas of necrosis [
Liposarcoma is one of the most common soft tissue tumors with peak incidence noted in 5th-6th decade of life.[
Based on the clinicopathologic and cytogenetic studies, liposarcomas are divided into well-differentiated, dedifferentiated liposarcoma, myxoid/round cell liposarcoma, and PLS. PLS is the rarest subtype, accounting for only 5%–10% of all liposarcomas.[
On cytology, PLS appears nondistinctive, high-grade pleomorphic, or spindle cell sarcoma. Cytomorphologically, the main diagnostic clue is the presence of atypical/pleomorphic multivacuolated lipoblasts. It should be kept in mind that aspirates from chordoma will show lipoblast-like cells, however have distinct clinical localization which avoids misdiagnosis in most instances.[
Cytogenetics plays a significant role in subtyping the liposarcomas. Well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcomas show amplification of Murine double minute 2 homolog (MDM 2) and CDK4 genes.[
In a review by Fletcher
Surgical resection is the basic treatment modality for liposarcoma along with adequate resection of the margins. These tumors are more radiosensitive when compared to other sarcomas. The application of adjuvant chemotherapy has been tried in many research centers.[
Q3: What are the specific molecular alterations in well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcoma?
MDM2 and DD1T3 BRCA2 and MDM2 DD1T3 and CDK4 CDK4 and GLI.
Ans: 3a – MDM 2 homolog amplification is seen in well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcoma and DNA DD1T3 rearrangements in myxoid liposarcoma. Unlike other subtypes of liposarcoma, PLS fails to show a specific molecular defect. CDK4 and GLI mutation are seen in well-differentiated liposarcoma and malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
Q4: Floret cells are usually seen in?
Neurofibroma Myxofibrosarcoma Atypical/Pleomorphic Lipoma (PL) Meningioma.
Ans: 4c – Floret cells are bizarre, multinucleated cells with wreath-like hyperchromatic nuclei. These are seen in PL. PL is a circumscribed tumor with the presence of mature adipocytes admixed with spindle cells and thick bright eosinophilic collagen bundles. No lipoblasts or prominent vascularity is seen. PL shows immunoreactivity for CD34 and vimentin.
Floret cells can also be noted in neurofibromas and well-differentiated liposarcoma. These cells are not seen in myxofibrosarcoma and meningioma.
Giant soft tissue tumors may be challenging, often require extensive grossing and sectioning. At times, morphology may be the key to diagnosis with limited role of immunohistochemistry. Accurate diagnosis of PLS at an unusual site can be confidently made on FNAC by demonstration of atypical/pleomorphic lipoblast.
The authors declare that they have no competing interest.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE. Each author has participated sufficiently in work and takes public responsibility for appropriateness of content of this article.
As this is a quiz case, this case does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board.
CECT - Contrast enhanced computed tomography IHC - Immunohistochemistry Pap - Papanicolaou PLS - Pleomorphic liposarcoma FNAC - Fine needle aspiration cytology.
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References
Retropharyngeal SOL: An unusual presentation of a multifaceted entity
A 33-year-old female presented with difficulty in swallowing (to both solids and liquids) over 2 months. However, she had no complaints of cough, fever, chest pain, weight loss, or any bone pains without significant past history. Blood and serological investigations including blood sugar, liver function test, kidney function test, and viral serology were within normal limits except for a mild elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate (34 mm/h). Endoscopic examination of the nasopharynx and oropharynx revealed edematous posterior pharyngeal wall with intact mucosa and an approximately 3 cm × 3 cm diffuse bulge in the posterior pharyngeal wall on the right side, involving the nasopharynx, part of oropharynx, and reaching up to the midline. Her chest X-ray was unremarkable. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan of the neck revealed an oblong hypodense nonenhancing lesion of about 3 cm × 2 cm in the right paramedian retropharyngeal space. The lesion was causing medial displacement of the right pharyngeal tonsils with attenuation of oropharyngeal air space, suggesting an infectious etiology. An endoscopy-guided fine needle aspiration from the retropharyngeal bulge was carried out and smears were prepared [Figure
(a) Fine-needle aspiration findings: Epithelioid cell granuloma (Giemsa, ×400). Multinucleate Langhans' type giant cell (Inset; PAP, ×400). (b)Fine-needle aspiration findings: Lymphohistiocytic cell aggregates (PAP, ×400). Acid-fast bacilli (Inset; ×1000)
Q1: What is your Interpretation?
Suppurative lymphadenitis Granulomatous lymphadenitis Neoplastic Inadequate for opinion.
1. B) Granulomatous lymphadenitis.
Retropharyngeal lymph nodes lie deep in the buccopharyngeal fascia [
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography neck scan (axial view): Oblong hypodense lesion in the right paramedian retropharyngeal space (arrow) causing attenuation of oropharyngeal air space
Causes of granulomatous lymphadenitis include;[
Infections:
Bacterial: tuberculosis (TB), leprosy, cat scratch disease Parasitic: leishmaniasis, toxoplasma Viral: EBV, CMV, HCV Fungal: cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, pneumocystis, Coccidioidomycosis Spirochetes: syphilis, yaws, pinta. Autoimmune causes: sarcoidosis, Crohn's disease Foreign body granulomas: suture material Drugs: Allopurinol, oral contraceptives, oxacillin, and amiodarone. Neoplastic: Hodgkin's lymphoma, seminoma, and others
Q2: What Stain has been Used for Confirmation of etiology (Inset
PAS Stain Ziehl Neelsen (Z-N) stain GMS Stain Reticulin stain.
Q3: What is not a common cause of primary retropharyngeal abscess?
Bacteroides
Q4: Which is the most sensitive test for tuberculosis diagnosis?
QuantiFERON TB Gold Smear microscopy GeneXpert MTB Mantoux tuberculin skin test
2. B) Z-N stain.
Ziehl Neelsen stain is commonly applied for staining
3. D)
The common causative organisms of primary retropharyngeal abscess include[
Aerobic organisms – Beta-hemolytic streptococci, Anaerobic organisms – Other uncommon organisms:
4. C) GeneXpert MTB
GeneXpert MTB > smear microscopy > Mantoux tuberculin skin test~
QuantiFERON TB Gold test.
The GeneXpert utilizes a DNA-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique for simultaneous detection of
Tubercular retropharyngeal abscess (TRA) is commonly associated with cervical spine TB.[
Summary of primary retropharyngeal cases reported from India
TB is a diverse disease with patients presenting with overt debilitating disease manifestations to minimal discomfort as was observed in the present case. Retropharyngeal TB is usually secondary to pulmonary or spinal TB. However, in the absence of any such previous history, the possibility of primary infection should not be ruled out. This case highlights unusual presentation of extra pulmonary TB and importance of fine-needle aspiration cytology in rapid diagnosis of deep-seated oropharyngeal lesions, which can often have serious complications due to airway obstruction.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
Poojan Agarwal: Conceptualized, drafted the article and gave approval; Manju Kaushal: Contributed to conception, design and gave final approval; Shruti Dogra: Contributed to conception and design; Ankur Gupta: Contributed to conception and design; Nishi Sharma: Contributed to conception and design
This study was conducted with approval from Institutional Review Board (IRB) of the institution associated with this study.
MTB - Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
TB - Tuberculosis
PCR - Polymerase Chain Reaction.
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References
Fine needle aspiration cytology finding of a parotid mass with chondromyxoid matrix and variable epithelial cytological atypia
A 52-year-old male patient was admitted with a left parotid mass (2.4 cm) [
(a) A neck computed tomography showing a bilobular heterogeneous mass (red circle) in the left parotid gland with progressive enhancement, most probably a pleomorphic adenoma. (b) Aspiration cytology showing moderate cellularity with chondromyxoid matrix (Pap, ×100). (c) The periphery of the myxoid stroma includes attached bland-looking ovoid epithelial cells (Pap, ×200). (d) Some clusters of the epithelial cells containing more plump epithelial cells with abundant oncocytic cytoplasm (Pap, ×400). (e) Other clusters of the epithelial cells exhibiting more severe cytologic atypia; a higher nuclear-/cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular nuclear membrane, prominent nucleoli, and abundant vacuolated cytoplasm (Pap, ×400)
Benign pleomorphic adenoma (PA) Malignant neoplasm PA, but cannot excluded malignant potential, such as CXPA Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma (CXPA).
The correct cytologic interpretation is C:
C. PA, but cannot exclude malignant potential, such as CXPA
The patient underwent a superficial parotidectomy and is alive and well without additional treatment.
Q1. Considering the patient's age, sex, location of the tumor, and radiologic findings, what is the most relevant cytodiagnosis?
Benign mixed tumor (PA) Malignant salivary gland tumor Most likely pleomorphic adenoma, but not exclusion of CEPA Widely invasive CXPA.
Q2. What is the most important tip for cytological diagnosis?
Recognition of chondromyxoid matrix Recognition of cytologic atypia Oncocytic epithelial cytomorphology Recognition of two different components.
Q3. Considering the histologic findings, what is the final diagnosis of this lesion?
Intratubular (intraductal) CXPA Extratubular CXPA Intracapsular CXPA Extracapsular CXPA.
Q4. What are the useful markers for the adenoma-carcinoma sequence in CEPA?
P53, Ki-67 ER, PR HER2, ER
A1; C, A2; D, A3; A, A4; B
A1. PA is the most common salivary gland tumor in both children and adults, accounting for the majority of all salivary gland neoplasms. Some cytologic findings in this case (chondromyxoid matrix, bland-looking epithelial cells around the myxoid stroma) are compatible with PA. However, other worrisome cytologic features are reminiscent of carcinomatous transformation (CXPA). A diagnosis of malignant salivary tumor or widely invasive CEPA should not be made due to a possibility of overtreatment
A2. The most important tip for cytologic diagnosis is the recognition of two different components: bland looking epithelial cells and clusters of atypical cytology [Figures
(a) The histology of the tumor showing two different nodules; myxoid hypocellular in one (blue circle) and another cellular mass with scanty myxoid stroma (red rectangle) (H and E, ×10). (b) This section showing a part of the chondromyxoid stroma and attenuated epithelial component (H and E, ×40). (c) This portion showing cellular proliferation composed of abundant eosinophilic epithelial cells with oncocytic changes (H and E, ×40). (d) The epithelial cells reveal distinct cytologic atypia with enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei and moderate pleomorphism (H and E, ×40). (e) p53 immunohistochemical staining showing different expressions between the two parts: very low expression in the chondromyxoid nodule and high expression in the atypical portion (p53, ×40). (f). The Ki-67 proliferation index is also significantly higher in the atypical portion (Ki-67, ×40)
A3. Considering the histologic findings, the final diagnosis of this lesion is PA with atypical features or early CXPA (intratubular/intraductal) type. The most atypical epithelial cells are confined to tubules or ducts [
A4. The useful markers for adenoma-carcinoma sequence in CXPA are P53, Ki-67, and Her-2neu. PLAG1 and HMGA2 are transcription factors in both PA and CXPA [Figures
CXPA is a broad category of cancers of the salivary glands, including at least two clinically relevant categories: early CXPA (ECXPA) and widely invasive CXPA.[
Although treatments for both PA and CXPA are complete excision, the extent of resection and the necessary safety margin are different. Therefore, cytological detection on aspiration samples can be an important key to management.
The cytological findings of CXPA have been reported in only a few case reports. The incidence of mild atypia in PA causing diagnostic problems has been reported to be as high as 50%.[
The cytomorphologic spectrum of CXPA has been studied.[
Very ECXPAs or composite tumors of benign and malignant nodules as this quiz case show distinct benign PA findings and focal moderate epithelial atypia, which can be misdiagnosed as benign PA.
In conclusion, a cytological diagnosis of CXPA can be possible if both components are properly recognized and unequivocal malignant cells in the background of biphasic components of PA. An erroneous diagnosis is possible due to misinterpretation, lack of experience, and sampling errors, compounded by the clinical overlap of the conditions.
Although rare, CXPA can occur among pleomorphic adenomas In cases with a strong clinical suspicion, multiple fine needle aspirations should be attempted In hypercellular smears with predominant epithelial components and any degree of atypia, a suspicion of CXPA should be raised.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
HK designed this quiz case.
As this is a quiz case without patient identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the institutional Review Board.
CXPA - Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma.
PA - Pleomorphic adenoma.
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References
Fine-needle aspiration of bilateral small round blue cell tumors in neck in a 65-year-old man: Significance of a wider differential
65-year-old man with progressive bilateral jaw and neck swelling for 1 year. The bilateral neck masses yielded hypercellular aspirates. The monotonous cells were arranged in small clusters and small rosettes with uniformly round nuclei, smooth nuclear contours, coarse - clumped chromatin, and scant delicate cytoplasm. Many groups of cells showed significant nuclear molding. Mitotic figures and necrosis were not readily identified [Figure
(a) Monotonous cells were arranged in small rosettes and clusters, as well as dispersed single cells (Diff-Quik, ×400). (b) The tumor cells have round to avoid nuclei with clumped chromatin and scant, delicate cytoplasm (Pap stain, ×400). (c) Many groups of cells showed significant nuclear molding (Diff-Quik, ×400). (d) Cell block was cellular with monotonous cells similar to those seen in the smears (H and E, ×400). (e) Cell block sections showed tumor cell immunoreactivity for synaptophysin (×400)
The tumor cells were immunoreactive for synaptophysin and chromogranin (focally) with non- immunoreactivity for cytokeratin AE1/AE3 and CD45.
Q1. What is your interpretation?
Small cell carcinoma Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma Human papillomavirus-associated squamous cell carcinoma Olfactory neuroblastoma.
Q1 (d) Olfactory neuroblastoma.
Based on the tumor's cytologic appearance and immunohistochemical profile, as well as the patient's past medical history of a carcinoma in the nasal cavity, a diagnosis of recurrent/metastatic olfactory neuroblastoma was rendered on all specimens obtained.
The patient had equivocal history of “carcinoma” in the left nasal cavity treated 10 years ago with craniofacial resection, left eye exenteration, and radiation therapy. Follow-up magnetic resonance imaging performed 6 years ago was reportedly negative for recurrence. The patient was lost to follow-up until the current presentation. Ultrasound examination showed a 4.0 cm × 3.8 cm × 2.5 cm complex, right neck mass-posterior and inferior to the ear. 4.0 cm × 3.5 cm ovoid, mobile, Level IB/IIA left neck mass was also present in addition to bilateral, multiple, relatively enlarged cervical lymph nodes.
A subsequent ethmoid sinus biopsy showed similar findings. The patient underwent salvage radiation therapy but presented to the hospital with progressive disease. The patient eventually elected for comfort measures only and was transferred to hospice care 10 months after tumor recurrence (nearly 11 years after initial diagnosis) and expired soon after.
Q2. What is the genetic abnormality found in NUT midline carcinomas?
13q14 (FOXO1) rearrangement (15;19), BRD4-NUT gene fusion EWSR1 rearrangements t(X;18), SYT-SSX1.
Q3. What are the benefits of rapid on-site evaluation (ROSE) of fine needle aspiration samples?
Increase tumor yield Assist in efficient triage for ancillary testing Give a preliminary diagnosis A and B
Q2: B; Q3: D.
Small round blue cell tumors (SRBCTs) are characterized by generally uniform small- to medium-sized, round, and relatively undifferentiated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. FNA of SRBCTs typically leads to highly cellular smears that are amenable to ancillary testing techniques.
An initial branch point we used in this case of a SRBCT was the age of the patient, as well as the bilateral locations of the tumor. Tumor masses in the neck are more commonly metastatic in nature, highlighting the importance of the patient's past medical history. Because of the patient's history of a solitary tumor in the nasal cavity and these subsequent bilateral neck masses, it was more likely for the neck masses to represent metastasis from a nasopharyngeal or sinonasal primary cancer.[
Olfactory neuroblastoma/esthesioneuroblastoma is primarily found in the submucosa of the sinonasal cavity and may present as a metastatic lesion in the head/neck. Smears are hypercellular, with monotonous cells arranged in small rosettes, sheets, and singly. As with neuroendocrine tumors and Merkel cell carcinoma, the cells have small round nuclei, “salt-and-pepper” chromatin, small to inconspicuous nucleoli, and nuclear molding. Necrosis, pleomorphism, and high mitotic activity may be absent in lower grade lesions, as in case 3 above. Tumor cells are positive for synaptophysin and chromogranin and negative for epithelial markers including cytokeratins and epithelial membrane antigen. The neurofibrillary cell processes that surround tumor cells may present as fibrillary background material on fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) smears and stain for S100.[
NUT midline carcinoma (NMC) is a poorly-differentiated carcinoma originating in midline locations. The tumor has a particular translocation t(15;19), most commonly resulting in the
Metastatic melanoma must always remain in the differential for round blue cell tumors of the head and neck, as it frequently presents after initial resection or as the first sign of malignancy. Melanoma cells are medium- to large-sized and can have epithelioid or round cell appearance, with prominent nucleoli and pleomorphic or irregular nuclei. The cells can be arranged in many forms, either as cohesive groups or as dispersed single cells. Melanoma cells can variably express S100, Melan-A (MART-1), HMB45, and SOX10. Use of a wide panel of as many markers as possible, along with a pan-cytokeratin cocktail and CD45, is essential when attempting to rule in or rule out metastatic melanoma in a patient with no prior history of melanoma.[
Although less common, metastatic or primary sarcomas can present as solitary neck masses consisting of small round blue cells on FNAC. In young- to middle-aged adults, the differential diagnosis includes synovial sarcoma, desmoplastic small round cell tumors, small cell osteosarcoma, mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, and round cell liposarcomas.[
Over the course of three quiz cases, we have shown three cases of round cell tumors that presented initially for FNAC, in which the diagnosis and workup significantly altered management and treatment decisions.
The first quiz case, published in December 2017[
As with all cases of FNAC, sampling tumor limits the ability to definitively diagnose SRBCTs based on microscopic examination alone. While some SRBCTs can display helpful or characteristic features such as rosette formation in neuroblastoma, many SRBCTs can exhibit pseudorosettes. In small biopsies and FNAC, architectural features may not be present in a limited sampling of the tumor. Although there may be temptation or pressure to arrive at a definitive diagnosis, cytopathologists must exercise caution when working with limited material.
A multimodal approach is key when working up SRBCTs. The workup includes correlation with clinical history and radiology findings and the use of immunohistochemical studies, molecular studies, flow cytometry, and cytogenetic karyotyping and/or fluorescence
An important final consideration in FNAC evaluation of SRBCTs is the use of rapid on-site evaluation (ROSE) of the FNA sample. Whether it is the pathologist or the radiologist obtaining the sample, ROSE can increase tumor yield and assist in efficient triaging for ancillary testing. Given the ever-increasing possible ancillary testing available to the pathologist, thoughtful specimen allocation can mitigate unnecessary testing or need for repeat sampling.
For all authors, the authors declare that they have no competing interests.
SC carried out literature review, coordinated submission, and drafted and edited the manuscript.
SH collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript.
DYL collected clinical cases and edited the manuscript.
RCM photomicrographs and drafted the manuscript.
MVL collected cases, and helped draft and edit the manuscript.
NAM conceived of the quiz case, collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript.
All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (IRB) (or its equivalent).
FISH - Fluorescence
FNA – Fine-needle aspiration
NUT – Midline Carcinoma
NUT – Nuclear protein in testis
PNET - Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
ROSE - Rapid on-site evaluation
SRBCT - Small round blue cell tumor.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted through automatic online system.
References
Fine-needle aspiration of a slowly enlarging neck mass in a 61-year-old woman: An interesting adult blue cell tumor in an unusual location
Slowly enlarging, nontender, right neck mass for 2- to 3-months in a 61-year-old woman. Computed tomography (CT) showed ill-defined, necrotic, 2.8 cm × 2.4 cm × 2.5 cm mass located adjacent to and inferior to the tail of the right parotid gland. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) [
(a) Aspirate were cellular with cells in clusters, small sheets, and small rosettes (Diff-Quik, ×200). (b) The cells with delicate cytoplasm had round to ovoid nuclei, coarse - clumped granular chromatin, and prominent nucleoli (Pap stain, ×400). (c) Cell block sections showed tumor cell Immunoreactivity for synaptophysin (×400). (d) Resection specimen showed the tumor cells organized as nests divided by thin fibrous septae. The cytomorphology of tumor cells was comparable to that noted in cytology smears (H and E, ×400)
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) Merkel cell carcinoma Metastatic small cell carcinoma from lung primary Follicular lymphoma.
Q1: (b) Merkel cell carcinoma.
Based on the tumor's cytologic appearance, immunohistochemical findings, and complex karyotype, a diagnosis of Merkel cell carcinoma involving the parotid gland was made.
The patient underwent subsequent superficial parotidectomy and neck dissection. The parotid gland and adjacent skeletal muscle were involved by tumor with florid lymphovascular and perineural invasion. Seven of 29 lymph nodes were positive for metastatic tumor.
Karyotyping showed a highly abnormal and complex hypodiploid karyotype in the tumor cells. In particular, nine cells showed monosomy 4, monosomy 13, and deletion 7q.
The patient began chemotherapy for merkel cell carcinoma and expired one month after diagnosis.
Q2. What is the ideal immunohistochemical staining pattern for Merkel cell carcinoma?
Cytoplasmic positivity for synaptophysin, dot-like staining for keratin 20 Cytoplasmic positivity for CD56, nuclear staining for S100 Cytoplasmic positivity for thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1), nuclear staining for keratin 20 Cytoplasmic positivity for CD45, dot-like staining for CAM5.2.
Q3. The immunohistochemical pattern of positive cytoplasmic staining for synaptophysin and chromogranin, positive nuclear staining for TTF-1, and negative staining for CK20 is most consistent with which small round blue cell tumor?
Poorly differentiated neuroendocrine tumor/small cell carcinoma Merkel cell carcinoma Melanoma Metastatic poorly differentiated lung adenocarcinoma.
Q4. The most common tumor in the neck region in adult patients is:
Lymphoma Rhabdomyosarcoma Metastatic HPV-associated squamous cell carcinoma Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma.
Q2: A; Q3: A; Q4: C.
Small round blue cell tumors (SRBCTs) are amenable to FNA biopsy due to their high cellularity and frequent appearance in subcutaneous locations such as the head and neck. However, the similar cytomorphology of SRBCTs can lead to a wide differential diagnosis. Pathologist evaluation of the cytomorphology of the aspirate smears can successfully narrow the workup and conserve diagnostic material. An initial branchpoint we use in the workup of SRBCTs in the head and neck is the age of the patient. Most of the differential diagnoses that would be considered in an infant or child would not apply here.
In adults, the most common tumor in the neck region is metastatic carcinoma to lymph nodes or parotid gland. In particular, human papillomavirus (HPV)-associated SCC and basaloid SCC should be high on the differential for any adult presenting with a neck mass. HPV-associated SCC and basaloid SCC can be nonkeratinizing. FNAC shows cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular and angulated nuclear contours, and scant to moderate amounts of dense cytoplasm. Tumor diathesis is common. In the cell block, tumor cells are arranged in cohesive nests with comedo-type necrosis. FNAC examination of the neck masses is frequently the first modality to raise the possibility of a metastatic SCC, setting off a search for the primary site frequently in the base of tongue or tonsil. Currently, there is no specific guideline for HPV testing or p16 cutoff value on FNAC for the establishment of HPV-driven carcinoma.[
Lymphomas are also high on the differential for any lateral neck mass. The most commonly occurring B-cell lymphomas are diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) and follicular lymphoma. However, myriad other hematolymphoid neoplasms, including T-cell lymphomas, may also be present at this site. DLBCL is composed of large lymphoid cells with fine chromatin, single to multiple nucleoli, and scant to moderate pale cytoplasm.[
Neuroendocrine tumors, particularly small cell carcinoma, can form rosettes composed of monotonous small blue cells. Pulmonary, gastroenteropancreatic, gynecologic, or genitourinary small cell carcinoma can present initially as metastatic lesions. Small cell carcinoma can also present as primary salivary gland neoplasms, most commonly the parotid gland, without antecedent or concurrent visceral primary lesions. Regardless of the site, the cells have small to medium-sized nuclei with stippled, “salt-and-pepper” granular chromatin, inconspicuous nucleoli, and scant fragile cytoplasm. Nuclear molding is characteristically seen in small cell carcinoma. Necrosis is common. A Ki67 or MIB-1 immunostain highlights the high proliferation rate. These cells are positive for neuroendocrine markers, cytokeratins (in a paranuclear dot-like pattern), and epithelial membrane antigen. While TTF-1 is usually positive in small cell carcinomas of pulmonary origin, it can also be positive in small cell carcinomas of other sites, such as bladder and prostate. Correlation with imaging findings is essential when immunohistochemical markers cannot determine a cell of origin in metastatic lesions.[
Merkel cell carcinoma may present as a primary cutaneous lesion in the head and neck, as a metastatic lesion in lymph nodes, and as a primary salivary gland lesion.[
For all authors, the authors declare that they have no competing interests.
SC carried out literature review, coordinated submission, and drafted and edited the manuscript. SH collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript. DYL collected clinical cases and edited the manuscript. RCM photomicrographs and drafted the manuscript. MVL collected cases, and helped draft and edit the manuscript. NAM conceived of the quiz case, collected clinical cases, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript. All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
CT - Computerized tomography
DLBCL - Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
FISH - Fluorescence
FNA - Fine-needle aspiration
HPV - Human papilloma virus
RMS - Rhabdomyosarcoma
SCC - Squamous cell carcinoma
SRBCT - Small round blue cell tumor.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted through automatic online system.
References
Cytology of achylous hematuria: A clue to an underlying uncommon clinical scenario
A 26-year-old male presented with chief complaints of on and off painless hematuria, and burning micturition for the past 3 months. The patient also had an episode of fever 1 month back. There was no history of increased frequency of micturition, dysuria, renal or ureteric colic, jaundice, trauma, instrumentation, or passage of milky white urine. Complete blood count and peripheral smear examination were within normal limits at the initial presentation. Ultrasound sonography abdomen showed distended urinary bladder and low-level internal echoes in the lumen with heteroechoic lesion [
(a) Day-1 urine cytology smear showing predominantly lymphoid cells (Giemsa, ×100); (b) Urothelial cells along with lymphoid cells and occasional eosinophil on day 2 urine sample (Pap, ×100); (c and d) These structures on day 2 sample (Giemsa, [c] ×200 and [d] ×400]; (e and f) Day 4 urine cytology showing the structures with urothelial cells and lymphocytes (Pap, [e]×100 and [f]×400).
(a) Ultrasonography abdomen showing distended urinary bladder with hetero-echoic lesion in the lumen. (b) Gross image of achylous thin reddish-brown urine sample from the patient presenting with hematuria
Urinary filariasis ( Schistosoma larvae Strongyloidiasis with underlying bladder malignancy Filariasis with underlying lymphoid malignancy.
Option A: Urinary filariasis (
The urinary sediment smears were stained by Papanicolaou and Giemsa stains. They showed the presence of many reactive lymphoid cells, few eosinophils, and neutrophils along with a predominance of RBCs and few degenerated benign urothelial cells. Also noted were microfilariae of
Acetone test was done on the 5th day urine sample. Grossly, we had received 15 ml blood mixed fluid. The sample was centrifuged at 3000 rpm for 3 min. On addition of few drops of acetone in the centrifuged sample, opacity was not cleared of; suggesting the absence of chyle in urine [
Q2: What is lesion in urinary bladder?
Primary bladder malignancy Metastasis to the urinary bladder Blood clot Nonneoplastic lesion.
Option C: Blood clot
Ultrasound abdomen revealed a distended urinary bladder and showed low-level internal echoes in the lumen of the bladder with heteroechoic contents which were mobile; hence, a possibility of clots was suggested, but the histological correlation was advised to rule out any underlying malignancy. Urine was sent for cytological evaluation.
Schistosoma larvae (cercariae) are released from snails into water and penetrate human skin exposed to infected water. Eggs are deposited in bladder wall vessels and incite a granulomatous response resulting in polypoid lesions and also causing eosinophilic inflammation, necrosis and ulceration, followed by fibrosis.
Strongyloides stercoralisis a human pathogenic parasitic roundworm causing the disease strongyloidosis. Its commonly called as threadworm. Infection is usually seen in lung & small intestine. Tissue eosinophilia and granulocytic infiltration may cause abscess formation.
Filariasis is a major public health problem in tropical countries, especially in the Asian continent. It is a disabling parasitic infection noted worldwide.[
In India, majority of the filarial infections are caused by
Patients with filariasis are usually asymptomatic but may present with varied clinical manifestations, that is, microfilaremia, lymphedema, hydrocele, acute adenolymphangitis, chronic lymphatic disease and rarely with the chyluria and tropical eosinophilia. Although chyluria is a known complication of filariasis, it is scarce to document filaria in achylous urine and may be due to lymphatic blockage by scars or tumors and damage to vessel walls by inflammation, trauma, or stasis.[
Webber and Eveland were the first to report microfilaria in both voided as well as catheterized urine samples from a young male patient with intermittent painless hematuria.[
In the present case, cytological examination of day one urine sample showed many lymphoid cells with few degenerated forms and few eosinophils which raised the suspicion of malignancy/lymphoma, especially when correlated with radiology revealing a mass in the lumen of the bladder. However, subsequent examination of urine on 4 more consecutive days revealed the presence of microfilaria in the 2nd and 4th day urine sample along with benign urothelial cells, thereby excluding malignancy/lymphoma.
It is rare to document microfilaria in the urine sample of patient presenting with an exophytic lesion in the bladder.[
Apart from an examination of peripheral blood, urine, and other body fluids for detecting microfilaria, serological markers can also be used.[
The detection of microfilaria in achylous hematuria is very rare. A simple investigative modality can help in diagnosing urinary filariasis in cases where there is strong clinical suspicion of malignancy along with the presence of mass lesion in bladder on radiology. The parasite may not be seen at initial presentation; hence, a careful cytological examination of consecutive days urine sample should be done. Treatment is simple with DEC, hence timely intervention is very important to prevent any further complications.
The authors declare that they have no competing interest.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE. Each author has participated sufficiently in work and takes public responsibility for appropriateness of content of this article.
As this is a quiz case, this case does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board.
CT - Computed tomography
DEC - Diethylcarbamazine
PS - Peripheral smear
RBCs - Red blood cells
USG - Ultrasound sonography
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Cytologic examination of ascitic fluid in a patient with pleural-based mass: A unique presentation of a rare tumor
A 47-year-female presented with complaints of cough, hemoptysis, and loss of weight for 1 month. Axial contrast-enhanced computed tomography showed moderately enhancing homogeneous left pleural mass, with associated mild pleural effusion. Pleural fluid cytology was followed by pleural biopsy. After 2 months, she had new complaints of pain and swelling of abdomen. Imaging studies revealed only ascites. Ascitic fluid was sent for cytological examination. The fluid was slightly viscous and hemorrhagic.
What is your interpretation of cytology of ascitic fluid?
Metastatic adenocarcinoma Reactive mesothelial proliferation Malignant mesothelioma Papillary mesothelial hyperplasia
The correct cytopathologic interpretation is:
C. Malignant mesothelioma
The cytopathologic diagnosis of malignant mesothelioma has always been challenging owing to the overlapping morphologic features with its other differential diagnoses. However, careful attention to the cytologic details combined with immunohistochemical staining on cell block can be of immense value in situations where cytological analysis of fluid may be the only available option.
In the present case, the cytologic features of malignant mesothelioma which overlapped with its closest differential diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma were as follows:
Arrangement of cells in tubulopapillary and acinar pattern [Figure Cellular pleomorphism [Figure Nuclear hyperchromasia Presence of peripherally arranged large vacuoles.[
The cytomorphologic features (in the present case) which generally favor a malignant mesothelioma over metastatic adenocarcinoma are as follows:
(a1 and a2) The pleural fluid smears were very cellular comprising of three-dimensional papillaroid and tubular clusters of malignant cells. The tumor cells showed moderate pleomorphism, clumped chromatin, and prominent nucleoli. In addition, numerous mitotic figures were also noted (Papanicolaou stain). (b) Pleural biopsy showed pleomorphic tumor cells arranged in tubulopapillary and glandular pattern along with fibrocollagenous tissue (hematoxylin and eosin stain). (c1 and c2) Immunohistochemistry showed nuclear positivity for WT1 and nuclear and cytoplasmic staining for Calretinin. (d1) Ascitic fluid smears were highly cellular with formation of cell balls having knobby contours. In higher magnification, features such as cell-in-cell engulfment, giant atypical mesothelial cells were seen. (Papanicolaou stain). (d2) Irregularly distributed variable sized cytoplasmic vacuoles were also seen (May Grunwald Giemsa stain). (e1 and e2) Immunohistochemical stain done on cell block from ascitic fluid sample showing positive staining for calretinin and CK5/6
Presence of large cell balls with knobby or berry-like contours containing nuclei overlapping with each other Presence of giant mesothelial cells [ Presence of cell-in-cell engulfment [
The reactive mesothelial proliferations form smaller, uniform, less complex groups compared to malignant mesothelial proliferations.
The tumor cells were also positive for WT1, Calretinin [Figure
Which virus has been implicated in the pathogenesis of malignant mesotheliomas?
HTLV HPV SV40 EBV. Which histologic subtype of mesothelioma is supposed to have grave prognosis?
Epithelioid Sarcomatoid Mixed. Which subtype of asbestos fiber has the maximum propensity to cause mesothelioma?
Serpentine Crocidolite Chrysotile Amosite.
SV40 is an oncogenic DNA virus. It induces DNA strand breaks in human mesothelial cells. The viral large T-antigen (Tag) inactivates the function of the tumor suppressor genes p53 and RB and induces chromosomal aberrations. The small t-antigen (tag) may contribute to transformation by binding to the protein phosphatase PP2A. The viral genomic sequences have been frequently detected in mesotheliomas, bone sarcomas, brain tumors, and few Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas Sarcomatoid pattern of mesothelioma is listed in the adverse prognostic factors of malignant mesothelioma Amphibole asbestos has the maximum propensity to cause mesotheliomas. There are two distinct subtypes, namely amosite and crocidolite. Crocidolite is more potent than amosite (5:1) in this association.
Malignant mesotheliomas are rare tumors accounting for <1% of all cancer deaths in the world.[
Historically known to be a tumor induced by exposure to asbestos, the peak age of incidence is sixth to seventh decade;[
The cytomorphological diagnosis has been stressed on by some authors[
Body fluids may be the only available sample for diagnosis of tumors affecting the serous cavities. Hence, detailed cytologic examination carries utmost importance in spite of morphologic overlaps.
Peritoneal mesotheliomas need to be distinguished from advanced intra-abdominal serous adenocarcinomas especially in women with the help of immunohistochemical stains pancytokeratin and calretinin.
Dual site mesothelioma is a rare possibility which may be encountered.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE.
Each author has participated sufficiently in work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
PD has contributed in the interpretation of the case findings and drafting of the manuscript.
DG has contributed in the interpretation of the case findings, drafting of the manuscript, and interdepartmental coordination.
VR has been involved in design and coordination.
PS has contributed in clinical detailing of the case and drafting of the manuscript.
NS has contributed in interpretation of case findings and drafting of the manuscript.
RG has contributed the radiological details and has been involved in drafting of the manuscript.
Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is a quiz case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
BAP 1- BRCA-associated protein 1 CECT - contrast-enhanced computed tomography Pan CK - Pancytokeratin SV 40 – Simian virus 40 USG - Ultrasonography.
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References
Lung tumor in a young African American patient with sickle trait: Pieces of a puzzle
A 32-year-old African American male with sickle cell trait presented with headaches, nausea, vomiting, cough, pleuritic chest pain, hypertension, and a 10-pound weight loss. A computed tomography (CT) showed multiple lung nodules, mediastinal lymphadenopathy, and an 11 cm mass in the right kidney with a suspicion for a tumor thrombus in the renal vein. Figure
(a) Computed tomography scan of the abdomen showing an 11 cm right renal mass. (b and c) Touch imprints of the lung core biopsy showing malignant cells arranged singly and in loose clusters with large, hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular nuclear contours and a moderate amount of granular cytoplasm with dense eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules (Diff-Quik stain, ×400). (d) Core biopsy showing malignant cells arranged in nests with areas of cribriform pattern and acute inflammation in a background of stromal fibrosis. Many cells demonstrate rhabdoid features. (H and E, ×400)
Metastatic clear cell renal cell carcinoma (RCC) Primary lung non small cell carcinoma Metastatic renal medullary carcinoma (RMC) Metastatic high-grade urothelial carcinoma.
The correct cytopathologic interpretation is:
c. Metastatic renal medullary carcinoma (RMC)
RMC is a high-grade malignancy with a poor prognosis. It affects predominantly young patients of African descent (median age 22 years, range 5–69 years). Ninety-six percent of the patients are younger than 40 years of age with a male to female ratio of 2.4:1. Eighty-eight percent of the patients have sickle cell trait.[
RMC is positive for cytokeratin AE1/AE3, low molecular weight cytokeratin, vimentin, and PAX8. It is negative for high molecular weight cytokeratin (HMWCK). Staining for CK7 and CK20 is variable ranging from no staining to diffuse staining.[
H and E and immunohistochemistry (IHC) results of the core biopsy in our case are presented in Figure
(a) Nests of malignant cells in a background of desmoplastic stroma and acute and chronic inflammation (H and E, ×200). (b) CK7 demonstrates diffuse cytoplasmic staining (×400). (c) CK20 demonstrates strong cytoplasmic staining (×400). (d) Vimentin demonstrates patchy positive staining in malignant cells (×400). (e) PAX8 demonstrates diffuse nuclear staining (×400). (f) INI-1 demonstrates loss of nuclear staining (×400)
Q1. Which of the following statements is FALSE about renal medullary carcinoma?
It affects predominantly young patients of African descent It is an aggressive tumor with a poor prognosis It arises predominantly in the right kidney High partial oxygen pressure and alkaline pH of the renal medulla in patients with sickle cell trait contribute to the mutagenesis and tumor formation.
Q2. RMC is thought to arise from the:
Proximal renal tubules Distal renal tubules Distal/terminal collecting ducts Urothelium.
Q3. Which of the following IHC panels is characteristic of RMC?
HMWCK−, INI-1−, Vimentin+, PAX8+ HMWCK+, INI-1−, Vimentin+, PAX8− HMWCK−, INI-1+, Vimentin+, PAX8+ HMWCK+, INI-1+, Vimentin−, PAX8+
Q4. What other tumors typically demonstrate INI-1 staining pattern that is similar to RMC?
Extrarenal malignant rhabdoid tumor Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor Epithelioid sarcoma All of the above.
Q1 (d); Q2 (c); Q3 (a); Q4 (d)
Q1 (d): RMC is an aggressive malignant tumor with a poor prognosis. It is seen predominantly in young patients of African descent with sickle cell trait. Greater than 75% of RMC originate in the right kidney.[
Q2 (c): RMC is thought to arise from the epithelium of the distal/terminal collecting ducts.
Q3 (a): RMC is positive for cytokeratin AE1/AE3, low molecular weight cytokeratin, vimentin, and PAX8. It is negative for HMWCK and demonstrates loss of nuclear INI-1 (hSNF5/SMARCB1/BAF47) staining. Staining for CK7 and CK20 is variable ranging from no staining to diffuse staining.
Q4 (d): INI-1 is a highly conserved factor in ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complex. In addition to RMC, other tumors with absent INI-1 are pediatric renal and extrarenal malignant rhabdoid tumors, atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors of the central nervous system, and epithelioid sarcomas. Some epithelioid MPNST, a proportion of myoepithelial carcinoma, and EMCS also show loss of INI-1 staining.[
RMC arises in the renal medulla. It was first described in 1995 by Davis
RMC is thought to arise from the epithelium of the distal/terminal collecting ducts and has been proposed as a variant of CDC of the kidney. It has been hypothesized that chronic sickling increases levels of hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF), a transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes. It induces TP53, which regulates cell death through apoptosis. In tumors lacking TP53, HIF induces vascular endothelial growth factor, promoting neovascularization, thus causing cancer progression.[
The common presenting complaints are hematuria and flank pain; whereas respiratory issues from bulky disease or pleural effusion are typically seen in <10% of presentations.[
RMC shows a variable architectural pattern including cribriform, reticular, yolk sac, adenoid cystic-like, trabecular, infiltrating solid cords, or papillae with central fibrovascular cores. Stroma is hypocellular, myxoid, edematous, with desmoplastic reaction and inflammatory infiltrate.[
Morphologically, RMC can be confused with CDC as both tumors arise in the renal medulla. In fact, some publications described RMC as a subtype of CDC. Clinical presentation, morphology, and immunostains help differentiate these two tumor types. CDC occurs in older patients and is not associated with sickle cell trait/disease. It demonstrates tubular, tubulopapillary, and glandular structures and solid and/or nested growth patterns. Intraluminal basophilic to amphophilic mucin may be present. Stroma is myxoid to sclerotic with desmoplastic stromal reaction with or without inflammation.[
High-grade urothelial carcinoma and RMC have some morphologic similarities, most notably the infiltrating growth pattern. The cells have relatively dense cytoplasm and nuclei with obvious malignant features, including pleomorphism, course chromatin, and prominent nucleoli.[
The differential diagnosis of RMC also includes high-grade conventional clear cell RCC, which can grow in a variety of patterns including solid, alveolar, and acinar with numerous thin-walled blood vessels. Cytologically, high-grade RCC is arranged in clusters or sheets, sometimes with floral groups or short papillae that occasionally contain metachromatic basement membrane-like material. The cells have delicate wispy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm and centrally or eccentrically located large, pleomorphic nuclei with prominent nucleoli.[
Treatment for RMC is challenging due to the rarity of this tumor with a mean survival of less than a year. Neither chemotherapy nor radiation therapy is particularly effective. The current therapeutic approach with these aggressive tumors is radical nephrectomy followed by cytotoxic chemotherapy, but the prognosis remains dismal. A few newer treatment approaches including both cytotoxic chemotherapy and targeted therapy regimens have been shown to slightly increase average survival in small cohorts.[
Reported cases of RMC describing cytologic features and immunohistochemical characteristics are few and without long-term follow-up. A high index of suspicion in patients with known risk factors might prove to be helpful in early detection. Further studies with larger patient cohorts are needed to understand this rare malignancy.
All authors declare that they have no competing interests.
MM collected the details of the case, carried out literature review and drafted and edited the manuscript. MP collected the details of the case, performed photomicrographs, additional literature review and edited the manuscript. KM was involved in conceptualization and edited the manuscript. JT helped edit the manuscript. SH helped edit the manuscript. EL conceptualized the quiz case, performed additional literature review, and edited the manuscript. All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
This report does not require approval from Institutional Review Board.
CT − Computed tomography
EMCS − Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma
H and E − hematoxylin and eosin
HIF – Hypoxia inducible factor
HMWCK − High molecular weight cytokeratin
IHC – Immunohistochemistry
MPNST − Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
RCC − Renal cell carcinoma
RMC – Renal medullary carcinoma
UEA 1 − Ulex europaeus agglutinin 1 lectin.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
CytoJounal quiz case: Fine-needle aspiration of peripancreatic mass clinically mimicking a lymphoma
A 74-year-old male is found to have hypermetabolic upper abdominal lymphadenopathy clinically suspicious for lymphoma. After obtaining the consent, fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of the mass is performed, and ThinPrep slide and a cell block are prepared for evaluation. ThinPrep shows atypical cells with abundant pale cytoplasm, stippled chromatin, and mild anisonucleosis. The cell block shows clusters of cells with pale cytoplasm and somewhat granulomatous appearance [
(a) ThinPrep (×400) shows cells with abundant cytoplasm and stippled chromatin. (b) ThinPrep (×400) – the cells exhibit mild anisonucleosis
(a) Cell block reveals cluster of cells with pale cytoplasm and granuloma-like formation. (b) Immunohistochemistry for synaptophysin
What is your interpretation?
Metastatic neuroendocrine carcinoma Solid pseudopapillary carcinoma Adrenal cortical carcinoma Paraganglioma Melanoma.
Based on the cytologic features, immunohistochemistry results, and location, the correct interpretation is C. paraganglioma.
The differential diagnosis based on the careful morphologic examination and location of the tumor includes hepatocellular carcinoma, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, adrenocortical carcinoma, melanoma, epithelioid gastrointestinal tumor, histiocytic lesions, and paraganglioma.
Paraganglioma is a rare tumor arising from the chromaffin cells in extra-adrenal sites. They can arise in all age groups with a peak incidence in the 4th and 5th decades. Cytologic diagnosis of extra-adrenal paraganglioma presenting as a peripancreatic mass is challenging with a high error rate due to its rarity.[
Q2. How would you classify tumor of adrenal medulla arising from the chromaffin cells and how often are they malignant?
Paraganglioma: 30% are malignant Pheochromocytoma: 90% are malignant Pheochromocytoma: 10% are malignant Cortical adrenal tumor: 40% are malignant.
Q3. In addition to immunohistochemical findings for diagnostic purposes, what other immunohistochemistry stain is recommended if available?
Catecholamine Cytokeratin Melan A SDH beta subunit.
Q4. Paraganglioma syndrome is associated with following syndromes:
von Hippel–Lindau (VHL) Carney triad Alport syndrome Pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma syndrome A, B, D All of the above.
Q2: C Q3: D Q4: E
Neoplasms arising from the chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla are classified as pheochromocytoma. Both paraganglioma and pheochromocytoma can produce and secrete catecholamines, thus presenting with hypertension.[
Octreoscan is excellent in the investigation of paraganglioma and neuroendocrine tumors in general.[
In benign lesions, surgery is the first line of treatment.
Paragangliomas can be sporadic or familial and associated with various syndromes such as VHL disease, Carney triad, neurofibromatosis type 1, MEN 2A and 2B, and hereditary pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma syndrome associated with SDH gene mutations. Familial forms of pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma syndrome can be frequently clinically recognized by the younger age of onset (<45), multiple and multifocal tumors, recurrent tumors, and family history of such tumors.
It is currently thought, according to some studies, that 65%–80% of all pheochromocytomas/paragangliomas are associated with somatic or germline mutations and some can further be associated with one of the above syndromes.[
Pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma syndrome is associated with a mutation in one SDH subunit that plays a critical role in mitochondria.
Immunohistochemistry for SDHB has been shown to be an excellent screening tool for a mutation in SDH genes. Immunohistochemistry for SDHB is lost whenever there is a complete inactivation of SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, SDHD, or SDHAF2. As a result, loss of tumoral immunohistochemical staining for SDHB occurs when there is germline mutation of SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, or SDHD accompanied by inactivation of the normal allele. This makes loss of staining for SDHB a sensitive marker, suggestive of germline pathogenic variants of any of the SDH subunits.[
The authors certify that they have obtained all appropriate patient consent forms. In the form the patient(s) has/have given his/her/their consent for his/her/their images and other clinical information to be reported in the journal. The patients understand that their names and initials will not be published and due efforts will be made to conceal their identity, but anonymity cannot be guaranteed.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
Adela Cimic MD-primary author, data collection and drafting of the manuscript. Natasha Rekhtman, MD, senior author, data review and review of the manuscript.
This study was conducted with approval from the Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent) of all the institutions associated with this study as applicable. Authors take responsibility to maintain relevant documentation in this respect.
CT - Computed tomography,
FNA - Fine needle aspiration,
SDH - Succinate dehydrogenase,
VHL - Von Hippel-Lindau.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Anterior neck swelling in a child: Cytological consideration of an uncommon diagnosis
A 4-year-old female child presented with a gradually increasing swelling in the lateral aspect of the right side of the neck for 9 months. There was no history of pain, fever, weight loss, or tuberculosis in the past. On local examination, swelling was about 4 cm × 2 cm in size, firm, and nontender with restricted mobility [
(a) Right-sided subcutaneous neck swelling, (b) scattered large cells with few binucleate forms in a background of proteinaceous material (Papanicolaou, ×200), (c) large polygonal cells with central to eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm (Giemsa, ×400), (d) fragment of spindle cells with slender nuclei embedded in a matrix along with scattered large cells (Papanicolaou, ×200)
What is your Interpretation?
Granular cell tumor Paraganglioma Ganglioneuroma Acinic cell carcinoma.
The correct cytopathological interpretation is c:
(c). Ganglioneuroma (GN) is the most differentiated and benign form of peripheral neuroblastic tumors. Majority of pediatric cases occur in infants and young children <10 years and present as a solitary, slow-growing mass lesion.[
In the present case, ultrasonography neck showed a solid well-circumscribed lesion measuring 4 cm × 3 cm × 2.5 cm in the superficial plane and not attached to underlying structures. FNA cytology (FNAC) was done from the swelling and revealed cellular aspirate. Smears prepared were air dried and fixed in 95% ethyl alcohol and subsequently stained with Giemsa and Papanicolaou stain. Smears were moderately cellular comprising large polygonal ganglion cells in groups, loose clusters, and many singly scattered. Cells had abundant granular cytoplasm, eccentrically located vesicular nucleus with prominent large nucleolus. Few foci of scattered mature lymphocytes were also noted. The background was hemorrhagic with areas of proteinaceous material.
Considering the age and cytomorphological features, possibilities considered were GN, granular cell tumor, paraganglioma, and acinic cell carcinoma [
Cytomorphological differentials in a cervical ganglioneuroma
Age | Usually adults, children <10 years | 10-50 years | 30-50 years | 40-50 years |
Common location | Posterior mediastinum, retroperitoneum, adrenal gland | Tongue, throat, chest wall, bronchus | Carotid artery bifurcation, middle ear, base of skull | Salivary glands; mainly parotid gland |
Morphology | Large polygonal ganglion cells with prominent nucleoli. Background of Schwannian (fibrillary) stroma | Nests of large polygonal cells with granular cytoplasm. Nucleoli inconspicuous to prominent. Background hemorrhagic with scattered granular material | Nests of round to oval to polygonal cells, finely granular cytoplasm. Nucleoli +/- background hemorrhagic | Clusters, sheets and groups of bland acinar cells with eosinophilic granular to vacuolated cytoplasm. Prominent to inconspicuous nucleoli. Background hemorrhagic |
Special stain/IHC | S 100+, synaptophysin+ | PAS +; diastase resistant S 100+ | S 100 +, Synaptophysin + | PAS +; diastase resistant |
IHC: Immunohistochemistry, PAS: Periodic acid–Schiff
On follow-up, excision biopsy was done. It revealed scattered mature and immature ganglion cells in the background of Schwannian stroma [Figure
(a) Scattered ganglion cells in a Schwannian background (H and E, ×100), (b) mature and immature ganglion cells along with scattered lymphocytes (H and E, ×400), (c) synaptophysin positivity (×200), (d) S100 positive ganglion cells (×400)
Q1. GNs with syndromic association are seen most commonly at which site?
Retroperitoneum Soft tissue Posterior mediastinum Gastrointestinal.
Q2. Cytological finding of ganglion-like cells is seen in which of the following?
Atypical lipomatous tumor Nodular fasciitis Schwannoma Giant cell tumor of soft tissue.
Q3. The presence of ganglion cells and Schwannian matrix in FNA smears raises the possible diagnosis of which of the following?
Ganglioneuroma Ganglioneuroblastoma Neuroblastoma Both a and b.
A1. d; A2. b; A3. d.
A1. (d) GNs of the gastrointestinal tract may be associated with MEN 2B, neurofibromatosis 1, Cowden syndrome, tuberous sclerosis, and familial adenomatous polyposis. Cowden syndrome is a part of PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome and multiple gastrointestinal hamartomas or GNs are among the major criteria for Cowden syndrome.
A2. (b) Atypical lipomatous tumor is a neoplasm characterized by the presence of lipoblast. Nodular fasciitis is a benign, reactive proliferation of myofibroblasts that can mimic sarcoma both clinically and morphologically. Nodular fasciitis may show pleomorphism with the presence of ganglion-like cells. Schwannoma has hypocellular component and cellular areas of spindle cells with verocay body formation. Giant cell tumor of soft tissue mimics its bony counterpart and shows numerous large multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells along with mononuclear cells.
A3. (d) Among the tumors of autonomic nervous system, ganglioneuroblastoma affects mainly the pediatric age group and is an important differential of GN. FNAC cannot rule out the presence of focal neuroblastic component. Excision biopsy can only confirm the diagnosis. In neuroblastoma, immature neuroblastic component predominates. Rosette formation may also be seen.
GNs are the well-differentiated tumors of the autonomic nervous system. They are slow growing and frequently asymptomatic or may proceed with compression-related symptoms.[
It is important to correctly identify the background neural stromal fragments as they are an important clue in identification of the lesion. These can be easily missed possibly due to more attention given to the abundant large cells in the foreground. However, FNAC or core biopsy may miss the scant immature neuroblastic component; thereby, a complete resection is recommended due to prognostic and therapeutic implications.
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and take public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from Institutional Review Board (IRB) (or its equivalent).
FNA - Fine Needle Aspiration,
FNAC - Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology,
GN - Ganglioneuroma.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Fine-needle aspiration cytology of a thyroid nodule: Challenging morphologic considerations
A 32-year-old female presented to the emergency department with fever, sore throat, and swelling of the right neck. A computed tomography scan showed a thyroid nodule measuring 2 cm localized to the right lobe. Ultrasound showed a dominant, complex, partially cystic and solid nodule measuring 2.3 cm × 2.1 cm × 2.0 cm with scattered internal microcalcifications. An ultrasound-guided FNA was performed, and the Papanicolaou and Diff-Quik-stained smears are shown in
(a) Cellular smears with numerous epithelioid cells showing clear cytoplasmic vacuoles, and rich vascularity (Diff-Quik, ×200); (b) Rare focus with cellular atypia, nuclear pleomorphism and hyperchromasia (Diff-Quik, ×400). (c) Higher power of a lesional cell with a signet ring appearance (Diff-Quik, ×600); (d) Papanicolaou-stained smear showing a cohesive cluster of cells, two with a signet ring appearance (×400); (e) The cell block was paucicellular but did contain two small groups of lesional cells with interspersed macrophages (H and E, ×200); (f) Immunohistochemical staining for thyroid transcription factor-1 showing positive nuclear staining in the lesional cells (×200). CD68 and CD10 immunohistochemical stains were negative (not shown)
Q1: What is your interpretation of the above findings?
Negative for malignancy Suspicious for follicular neoplasm Positive for malignancy, favor metastasis Papillary thyroid carcinoma.
The best answer is “suspicious for follicular neoplasm.” Given the imaging findings of a dominant thyroid nodule along with a cellular aspirate of cohesive clusters of monotonous-appearing cells with atypical cytologic features including hyperchromasia, intracytoplasmic vacuoles, and signet ring cells, a neoplasm is likely.
The finding of signet ring cells in a follicular neoplasm of the thyroid is a rare event.[
The patient subsequently underwent a total thyroidectomy with limited cervical lymph node dissection without complication. Gross pathologic examination of the thyroid specimen revealed a well-circumscribed tan-yellow nodule within the mid-inferior right lobe measuring 2.7 cm × 2.3 cm × 1.7 cm. Histologically, the nodule was encapsulated and demonstrated a predominantly nested pattern of growth with occasional microfollicular structures and scattered fine vasculature [
Histologic features of thyroid follicular carcinoma with signet ring cells. (a) Nested pattern of follicular cells, some with intracytoplasmic vacuoles imparting a signet ring cell appearance, and surrounding fine vasculature (H and E, ×400); (b) An area with marked cellular atypia (H and E, ×200). (c) Vascular invasion within the capsule, with fibrin thrombus formation associated with neoplastic follicular cells (arrow) (H and E, ×400). (d) ERG transcription factor immunohistochemistry, highlighting the endothelial cells (double arrows) lining the vascular space with neoplastic follicular cells within the lumen (×400). (e) Neoplastic cells negative for mucin (Mucicarmine, ×400). (f) Neoplastic cells positive for thyroglobulin (Thyroglobulin, ×200)
Clinical follow-up with nuclear scans revealed no definitive evidence of local or distant metastasis, and the patient received 30 mCi of I-131. At 6-month postthyroidectomy, the patient had no evidence of recurrence.
Q1. Which of the following statements regarding prognosis when signet ring cell morphology is seen in a thyroid neoplasm has been reported in the literature?
Signet ring cell morphology in thyroid neoplasms is associated with a poor prognosis, much like carcinomas of the gastrointestinal tract showing similar morphology Signet ring cell morphology indicates a metastatic tumor and is associated with a poor prognosis Signet ring cell morphology in thyroid neoplasms does not appear to be associated with a poor prognosis, unlike carcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract showing similar morphology Signet ring cell morphology in thyroid neoplasms has not been reported to be associatedS with prognosis.
Q2. Which of the following results on the immunohistochemical analysis of a cell block from a fine-needle aspiration of a thyroid nodule showing signet ring cell morphology is most consistent with a primary thyroid neoplasm?
Lesional cells positive for CAIX and CD10; negative for TTF-1 and thyroglobulin Lesional cells positive for TTF-1 and napsin A; negative for CAIX and CD10 Lesional cells positive for ER and GATA3; negative for SOX10 and S100 Lesional cells positive for TTF-1 and thyroglobulin; negative for CAIX and CD10.
Q3. Which of the following statements is best, given the finding of signet ring cell morphology in an aspirate smear of a thyroid nodule?
A metastatic tumor to the thyroid is a possibility, but a thyroid primary should be ruled out Signet ring cell morphology is not seen in primary thyroid neoplasms, so it is likely a metastasis Signet ring cells indicate a malignant neoplasm, as this morphology is not associated with benign processes of the thyroid A benign thyroid process is likely, and further workup is not necessary.
Q1: C; Q2: D; Q3: A
“Signet-ring” is a commonly used descriptor for cells showing crescent-shaped nuclei compressed to the periphery of the cell secondary to cytoplasmic accumulation of vacuoles, inclusions, and various substances including mucin and lipids.[
Although metastasis to the thyroid is a rare event, it must be considered and ruled out when signet ring cells are encountered on an aspirate smear. The common primary sites of metastatic carcinomas to the thyroid reported in the literature include kidney, lung, and breast, among others.[
The vacuoles imparting the signet ring cell morphology in follicular thyroid neoplasms are thought to be intracytoplasmic follicular lumina lined by microvilli based on ultrastructural studies, which may be due to an arrest in folliculogenesis.[
The general molecular genetics of thyroid neoplasms have been well studied. While
The finding of signet ring cells in a thyroid aspirate presents a diagnostic challenge to the cytopathologist, with a variety of not only primary and metastatic neoplasms but also nonneoplastic conditions to consider. Although neoplasms showing signet ring cells typically are associated with a poor prognosis, this cytologic feature has been reported more often in benign rather than malignant thyroid processes.
All authors declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article. CEF performed the literature review, organized the data, selected images, and drafted the manuscript. LS provided histological analysis and critically reviewed the manuscript. RN provided cytological analysis and critically reviewed the manuscript. FN provided clinical analysis and critically reviewed the manuscript. MJ conceived the study, participated in the design, performed cytological and histological analysis, selected final images, critically reviewed the manuscript draft, and is the corresponding author. All authors read and approved the final manuscript.
As this is a case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
FNA - Fine-needle aspiration
IHC - Immunohistochemistry.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
An unusual presentation of carcinoma in gallbladder
A 54-year-old female presented with dyspnea, yellowish discoloration, and pain in upper abdomen for 2 months subsequently associated with weight loss. She presented with bilateral pleural effusion while her investigations were going on. The ultrasound of the abdomen showed cholelithiasis and a gallbladder (GB) mass measuring 10 cm × 6 cm × 5 cm, invading the liver parenchyma [
Ultrasonography showing gallstone and mass arising within the gallbladder and invading the liver parenchyma (a). Computed tomography image showing gallbladder wall thickening with contiguous infiltration of adjacent segment 5 and 4b of the liver with gallbladder calculi and periportal lymph nodes (b). Fine-needle aspiration cytology smears showing clusters of tumor cells (H and E, ×100) (c), with characteristic nuclear molding (MGG, ×400) (d)
Q1: What is your interpretation?
Benign lesion Lymphoma Small-cell carcinoma (SmCC) Adenocarcinoma
The correct cytopathological interpretation is,
c. Small cell carcinoma
Extrapulmonary SmCC is uncommon and seen in <5% of total SmCC.[
Fine dark chromatin Absent or inconspicuous nucleoli Scant cytoplasm.
The cytological features of SmCC and pertinent differential diagnoses are discussed as follows: The cells are usually distributed as loosely cohesive clusters and singly dispersed cells with variable nuclear molding. The cell size is 2–2.5 times that of lymphocytes, with scant cytoplasm, hyperchromatic nuclei, inconspicuous nucleoli, finely granular chromatin, and markedly increased mitoses and apoptosis. Neuroendocrine differentiation is supported by positive immunostaining for CD56, synaptophysin, and chromogranin.[
Overlapping features with lymphoma include singly dispersed cell population and similarities in cytomorphology inclusive of high nucleocytoplasmic ratio and inconspicuous nucleoli. However, the background often reveals lymphoglandular bodies in the smears obtained from the lymphoma. Significant crush artifact is seen in both the tumors. Immunohistochemical staining of cell block material for CD45 and neuroendocrine markers is helpful. Overlapping features with adenocarcinoma include gland-like differentiation. Poorly differentiated tumors reveal singly dispersed cells. The presence of rosettes and nucleocytoplasmic polarity in neuroendocrine tumors may mimic adenocarcinoma. In addition, it is common to have combined small cell and adenocarcinoma, which should be considered in the differential diagnosis.[
The patient succumbed to illness after few days of diagnosis.
Pleural fluid – What is the cytological interpretation of effusion?
No malignant cells seen Benign mesothelial cell proliferation only Metastatic adenocarcinoma Metastatic SmCC Which panel of immunohistochemical markers will confirm the diagnosis of SmCC on cell block?
Cytokeratin, CD56, Napsin A Synaptophysin, chromogranin, CD56 Napsin A, Cytokeratin 5/6, Wilms’ tumor (WT1) CEA, WT-1, CD45 How helpful will be thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) in differentiating SmCC of lung from primary GB SmCC??
It will be helpful as TTF-1 is positive only in SmCC of lung It will not be helpful as TTF-1 is positive only in adenocarcinoma lung and not in SmCC It will not be helpful as TTF-1 is not a specific marker for origin of SmCC from the lung None of the statement is correct.
(1) d, (2) b, (3) c
(1) d [
Similar tumor cells are noted within the pleural fluid effusion smears. Background showing mesothelial cells (a) MGG, ×200, (b) PAP, ×200
We have to remember that the key diagnostic features of SmCC do not include cell size and neuroendocrine differentiation. SmCC can show unexpectedly large cells or some tumors may have small cells. Neuroendocrine differentiation in non-SmCC is not uncommon and sometimes may not be demonstrable in SmCC.[
The chest CT scan did not show any mass lesion in lungs. A large mass arising from GB was identified and was considered a primary lesion. The SmCC of GB is uncommon and pleural effusion has never been described. A recent series of malignant effusion cytology[
(2) b [
The cell block showing sheets and clusters of tumor cells (H and E, ×200) (a). The tumor cells are positive for synaptophysin and CD56 DAB, ×400 (b-c). Ki 67 index is >80% DAB, ×400) (d)
(3) b: TTF-1 is positive in 80% of lung SmCC and are seen in 7%–80% of extrapulmonary SmCC.[
SmCC of GB is associated with cholelithiasis as was seen in the present case. The cell of origin is considered to be multipotent stem cell or neuroendocrine cells in gastric metaplasia secondary to cholelithiasis.[
We wish to highlight an uncommon variant of GB carcinoma with an uncommon clinical presentation. The clinical presentations and radiology of SmCC are similar to other GB malignancies. Furthermore, it is not a common site for trucut biopsy, so FNA remains the only reliable technique for diagnosis. The importance of cell block preparation during FNA is also emphasized by this case, which is essential for proper tumor characterization.
To the best of our knowledge, pleural fluid metastasis has never been described in a case of SmCC of GB. In the present case, the pleural fluid smears showed tumor cells with typical morphology of SmCC.
Cytology plays an important role in the diagnosis of GB malignancies. Cytomorphology might be sufficient in majority of the tumors of that location, but a few rare ones require IHC for confirmation.
The authors declared that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declared that they qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE
As this is a quiz case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the institutional review Board (or its equivalent).
CT - Computed tomography
FNA - Fine-needle aspiration
GB - Gallbladder
IHC - Immunohistochemistry
SmCC - Small-cell carcinoma.
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References
Large lung mass: Cytopathological features
A Japanese woman in 50s presented with blood-tinged sputum. Chest X-ray and computed tomography scan revealed a large mass lesion in the lung. She had no asbestos exposure. It was considered to be a primary pulmonary malignant tumor because no tumorous lesions were found at any other sites, including the soft tissue. After the preoperative bronchial brushing cytology [
(a) The cytologic smear is hypercellular and consists of cell clusters with frayed edges and numerous single cells. (b) The cluster is composed of loosely cohesive, small, round to oval, and short spindle to spindle cells surrounding the capillary. The small round cells have scant cytoplasm with hyperchromatic and inconspicuous or absent nucleoli. (c) Most tumor cells are uniformly small, round to oval with high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio. The nuclear chromatin is finely granular with several small nucleoli
What is your interpretation?
Malignant mesothelioma Carcinosarcoma Synovial sarcoma (SS) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.
The correct cytopathologic interpretation is C. Synovial sarcoma
The resected tumors, measuring 11 cm × 7 cm, were well circumscribed and whitish-yellow in color with extensive hemorrhage and necrosis. Histopathologically, tumor cells showed small, round, oval to short-spindled cells with high nuclear-cytoplasmic (N/C) ratio proliferated in a vaguely intersecting fascicular pattern [Figures
The small round cells and short-spindled cells showed an intersecting fascicular pattern. Focally, hemangiopericytomatous staghorn-like configurations were observed
Small, oval to short-spindled cells with high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio proliferate in a vaguely intersecting fascicular pattern. Mitotic figures are observed
Q1. Which of the following cytomorphologic and histopathological pattern is the most frequent for typical SS?
Biphasic Monophasic fibrous Monophasic epithelial Poorly differentiated.
Q2. What is the most useful immunohistochemistry for diagnosis?
TLE1 STAS6 SOX10 NKX3.1.
Q3. What is the most characteristic gene translocation?
EWSR1-FLI1 NAB2-STAT6 ETV6-NTRK SYT-SSX.
Q1; B, Q2; A, Q3; D
Immunohistochemically, the tumor was positive for vimentin and MIC2 (CD99) and focally for epithelial membrane antigen but negative for CD34. Recently, although the immunohistochemical staining for TLE1 is specific for diagnosis, the SYT/SSX1 fusion gene was detected by real-time polymerase chain reaction and direct sequencing. Finally, she was diagnosed with monophasic fibrous SS, because the poorly differentiated component was focal.
SS is usually recognized as a malignant soft-tissue tumor of uncertain differentiation with a predilection for the extremities in adolescents and young adults.[
Primary pulmonary SS should be differentiated from metastatic SS, which depends on whether primary SS at another site is present or not. Histologically, SS is classified into four subtypes: biphasic, monophasic epithelial, monophasic fibrous, and poorly differentiated. SS of the monophasic fibrous type is most common at all sites.[
Recently, reports of SS at unusual sites have been increasing with the advance of immunohistochemical and cytogenetic techniques. Especially, detection of SS-specific chromosomal translocation t(X; 18) and the subsequent
There are no differences in histologic and cytologic features between SS of the soft tissue and the lung.[
The algorithmic approach of cytological feature
In common with SS of the soft tissue, the cytologic features of pulmonary SS are characterized by hypercellular smears composed of small, oval to short-spindled single cells, and branching or irregular-shaped clusters with frayed edges and thin-walled capillaries. Since the tumor cells of SS are frequently small sized with scant cytoplasm, it is important not to confuse them with so-called small-round-cell tumors. For SS cases with metastasis, the cell block from cytology specimen can help with genetic research.
The authors declare that we have no competing interests.
All authors have participated sufficiently and took responsibility for the appropriateness of content in this article.
This study was conducted with approval from the Institutional Review Board of all the institutions associated with this study as applicable.
CD - Cluster of differentiation,
ETV6 - ETS variant 6 transcription factor,
EWSR - Ewing sarcoma,
FLI1 - Friend leukemia integration 1 transcription factor,
INI-1 - Integrase Interactor 1,
MIC2 - Microneme protein 2,
N/C ratio; nuclear-cytoplasmic ration,
NAB2 - NGFI-A-binding protein 2,
NKX3.1 - NK3 Homeobox 1,
NTRK - Neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase,
SMARCB1 - SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily B member 1,
SOX10 - SRY-related HMG-box 10,
SS - Synovial sarcoma,
SSX - Synovial sarcoma, X breakpoint 2,
STAT6 - Signal transducer and activator of transcription 6,
SYT - Synovial sarcoma translocation, chromosome 18,
TLE1 - Transducin-like enhancer of split 1
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Lymphoproliferative process with reactive follicular cells in thyroid fine-needle aspiration: A few simple but important diagnostic pearls
A 15-year-old female with previous diagnosis at the age of 12 years presented to clinic for follow-up. She complained of dull headaches with mild thyroid enlargement for a period of 1 week. An ultrasound scan revealed a nonenlarging, diffusely heterogeneous thyroid gland with multiple, small, hypoechoic nodules in the isthmus and posteroinferior portion of the left thyroid lobe. She underwent fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsies of the nodules in the left thyroid lobe and isthmus. The findings of FNA are shown in
(a) DQ stain, ×60, (b) PAP stain, ×60, (c) DQ stain, ×60, (d) DQ stain, ×60. (1) Follicular cells with paravacuolar granules. (2) Lymphohistiocytic tangles. (3) Tingible-body macrophages. (4) Predominance of polymorphic lymphocytes. (5) Lymphoglandular bodies in the background. (6) Occasional pass showed some watery colloid
Papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) Hashimoto's thyroiditis High-grade mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma Follicular neoplasm
Answer: B
The aspirates showed abundant polymorphic lymphocytes with lymphohistiocytic tangles showing tingible-body macrophages with relatively scant colloid in the background and with lack of nuclear features of PTC. In addition, the aspirates showed many follicular cells with marked reactive changes as many Hurthle cells with large vesicular nuclei with prominent nucleoli and relatively abundant granular cytoplasm [
Arrow depicts Hurthle cells with round nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and granular cytoplasm (DQ stain, × 60)
Arrow depicts lymphoepithelial structures (reactive thyroid follicular cells infiltrated by lymphocytes), pap stain × 60
Which combination of methods can best evaluate lymphoma on FNA in setting of Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Wet-fixed Papanicolaou staining with cellblock Wet-fixed May–Grunwald–Giemsa with flow cytometry Air-dried Papanicolaou staining alone Air-dried Wright stain/Diff-Quick stain with flow cytometry
Answer: D
The characteristic cytomorphological features of lymphocytes [
2. A cellular aspirate predominantly shows cells with abundant, fine granular cytoplasm, large, central, or eccentrically placed round nuclei with prominent nucleoli, and varying nuclear sizes. The cells are present as crowded groups with syncytial arrangement and have little to no colloid and/or lymphocytes in the background. Which of the following is the most likely cytopathologic interpretation?
Lymphocytic thyroiditis Follicular neoplasm, Hurthle cell type Multinodular goiter Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Answer: B
Hurthle cell neoplasms (oncocytic variant of follicular neoplasm) have >75% of follicular cells as oncocytes (Hurthle cells) with round nuclei showing prominent nucleoli, and abundant eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm, and without a significant amount of colloid. Compared to lymphocytic thyroiditis/Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the number of lymphocytes in the background is insignificant, if any. The aspirates from lymphocytic thyroiditis/Hashimoto's thyroiditis may show significant number of lymphoepithelial structures with lymphocytes infiltrating and destroying Hurthle cells. If the aspirate is an oncocytic variant of PTC, nuclear features of PTC would be evident.
3. As opposed to classic Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Juvenile Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
May undergo remission Will rapidly progress to atrophy and fibrosis Will present with follicular epithelial cells surrounded by lymphocytes on FNA Will have goiter
Answer: A
The most common cause of hypothyroidism in children and adolescents is Hashimoto's thyroiditis and it may undergo remission.
Hashimoto's thyroiditis is also known as struma lymphomatosa, lymphocytic thyroiditis, or chronic autoimmune thyroiditis. It is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland and is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions. It is more common in females than males. It is classically seen in the fifth decade; however, a juvenile form exists that presents at a mean age of 11 years.[
In symptomatic patients, the initial presentation may be that of hyperthyroidism as a result of the destruction of follicles. The destruction of the thyroid gland progresses to hypothyroidism, with decreased T4 and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone. Diffuse enlargement of the thyroid may occur at presentation, though less commonly it can present as one or more nodules. Autoantibodies such as antithyroglobulin and antithyroid peroxidase may also be present and relate to thyroid damage. Most patients have detectable serum concentrations of antibodies against at least one thyroid antigen.
Pathogenesis is thought to include genetic and environmental factors leading to CD4+ T-cell sensitization to thyroid antigens. CD8+ T-cells, cytokines, and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity are all thought to play a role in the destruction of the gland.[
Typical findings on histology include Hurthle cells, which are reactive, polyclonal thyroid follicular cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm and nuclei with prominent nucleoli.[
Hashimoto's thyroiditis confers an increased risk for MALT lymphoma (extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma) (estimated up to 23.5%).[
FNA of the thyroid is considered superior to antibody screening alone and carries a 92% diagnostic accuracy.[
Cytopathologic interpretation of Hashimoto's thyroiditis is made as lymphocytic thyroiditis by an FNA smear consisting of Hurthle cells [
The differential diagnosis is broad based on cytopathological findings. The first differential is Hurthle cell neoplasm which is characterized by relatively cellular aspirates with numerous three-dimensional groups of oncocytic follicular cells without significant number of lymphocytes. Nodular goiter with prominent oncocytic changes should also be ruled out. Here, sheets/monolayers of thyroid follicular cells arranged in honey-combs are admixed with reactive Hurthle cells present as repair-like groups with school of fish pattern, with significant proportion of colloid in the background.[
FNA is a minimally invasive surveillance for potential neoplasms arising in the setting of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Onsite adequacy evaluation with elective flow cytometry is an excellent tool for ruling in/ruling out a lymphoproliferative process, especially low-grade MALT lymphoma. When FNA yields an aspirate with predominance of lymphocytes, ancillary tests should be performed to rule out low-grade MALT lymphoma. Predominance of Hurthle cells in three-dimensional solid groups, trabecular pattern, or other epithelial structures without significant number of lymphocytes and without significant colloid in the background would favor Hurthle cell neoplasm or oncocytic variants of other thyroid neoplasms. Relevant features should be properly scrutinized and considered. Potential pitfalls include missing oncocytic variants of various neoplasms including PTC (intranuclear pseudoinclusions/nuclear grooves with nuclear irregularity), and medullary carcinoma (calcitonin immunoreactivity/elevated blood calcitonin level).
The authors certify that they have obtained all appropriate patient consent forms. In the form the patient(s) has/have given his/her/their consent for his/her/their images and other clinical information to be reported in the journal. The patients understand that their names and initials will not be published and due efforts will be made to conceal their identity, but anonymity cannot be guaranteed.
The author(s) declare that they have no competing interests.
All authors of this article declare that we qualify for authorship as defined by ICMJE
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for appropriate portions of the content of this article.
OS helped draft the manuscript and prepared the images.
BB, LH and YL helped draft the manuscript.
VS helped with editing, revising and drafting of the manuscript.
Each author acknowledges that this final version was read and approved.
As this is Quiz Case without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
FNA - Fine needle aspiration
PTC - Papilary thyroid carcinoma
MALT - Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
Diagnostic rescue of a silent scalp swelling by fine-needle aspiration
A 71-year-old male presented with large soft fluctuant 5 cm × 6 cm swelling on the scalp 2 years back. The swelling was present for 2–3 months, and clinical diagnosis of abscess or adnexal skin tumor was considered. The patient had no other swelling or discomfort in the body, and there was no history of any other symptoms. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) was advised which yielded hemorrhagic aspirate, and multiple air-dried and wet-fixed smears were prepared which were stained by May–Grunwald–Giemsa and Papanicolaou stains, respectively. The cytological picture is as shown in
Fine-needle aspiration cytology scalp swelling showing (a) smears showing cellular sheets and papillaroid fragments of tumor cells (Papanicolaou, ×10); (b) smears showing cellular fragment comprised of round to oval mildly pleomorphic cells with low nucleocytoplasmic ratio, and pale to clear cytoplasm (PAP, ×40); (c) smears showing round to oval cells adherent to endothelial lining with pale cytoplasm in hemorrhagic background (May–Grunwald–Giemsa, ×40); (d) smears showing cells forming acini with nuclei showing fine chromatin, small nucleoli, clear cytoplasm and occasional atypical mitotic figure (arrow) (May–Grunwald–Giemsa, ×40). Inset: Cell showing moderate pale cytoplasm with nuclei having irregular nuclear membrane, coarse chromatin and prominent nucleoli (May–Grunwald–Giemsa, ×100)
What is your interpretation
Abscess Metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) Sebaceous carcinoma Hidradenoma.
The correct cytological interpretation is:
B. Metastatic RCC.
Cytological smears were cellular with cells arranged in sheets, acini, and few papillaroid structures in hemorrhagic background [
This was followed by contrast-enhanced computed tomography of the abdomen which showed right renal mass showing an ill-defined lobulated heterogeneously enhancing lesion involving the upper pole measuring 5.4 cm × 4.9 cm × 4.6 cm. Ultrasonography (USG) revealed an enlarged right kidney with a hypoechoic mass measuring 5.4 cm × 4.9 cm × 4.6 cm [
(a) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography abdomen showing right renal mass with lobulated heterogeneously enhancing lesion involving upper pole; (b) Ultrasonography abdomen showed enlarged right kidney with hypoechoic mass
Ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration cytology renal mass showing (a) Smears are hypercellular showing cells arranged in papillaroid structures and sheets (Papanicolaou, ×4); (b) smears showing cellular fragment with few nuclei showing intranuclear inclusions (arrow) in thick hemorrhagic background (May–Grunwald–Giemsa, ×40); (c and d) smears show mildly pleomorphic cells arranged in vague acini having pale vacuolated cytoplasm and nuclei with fine chromatin and small nucleoli (May–Grunwald–Giemsa, ×40). Inset: Cells showing moderate pale cytoplasm with nuclei having coarse chromatin and prominent nucleoli (Papanicolaou, ×100)
RCC commonly metastasizes to lung, lymph nodes, bone, adrenals, and brain.[
The skin metastasis of RCC is usually solitary, which may present as a nodule varying from 0.5 cm to 7 cm. However, in the present case, the cutaneous manifestation was present at different times at two different sites with size of 5 cm × 6 cm on the scalp and 2 cm × 2 cm on the nasal bridge. It has been postulated that increased vascularity of RCC facilitates hematogenous distant metastasis of this tumor.[
The cutaneous metastasis of RCC is associated with poor prognosis, and life expectancy is usually about 6 months.[
The silent RCC may primarily present as cutaneous metastasis, and therefore, every skin swelling should also be evaluated in light of the presence of any occult primary. FNAC may prove to be an important diagnostic tool for evaluating such cutaneous metastasis. Vigilant examination of cytological smears will be helpful in clinging precise diagnosis even in unsuspected cases. The early diagnosis will thus prevent delay in treatment and further complications.
Bubbly cytoplasm Presence of basaloid cells Cells with pale vacuolated cytoplasm adherent to endothelial lining Dual population of clear and eosinophilic cells.
Answer: C
Lung Bone Skin Brain.
Answer: C
Clear cell carcinoma of salivary gland RCC Sebaceous carcinoma Urothelial carcinoma.
Answer: B
The authors declare no conflicts of interest.
All authors have contributed significantly and agree with the final manuscript.
The authors have taken permission from institutional review board for publication of this manuscript.
CD - Cluster of Differentiation
FNAC - Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology
RCC - Renal cell carcinoma
USG - Ultrasonography.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a
References
A rare case of malignant metastatic tumor diagnosed on fine-needle aspiration of cervical lymph node
A 57-year-old female came to ear, nose, throat outpatient department with painless right-side cervical swelling for 1½ years. On examination, she had an enlarged right cervical lymph node in the middle part of the neck, measuring approximately 3 cm in diameter. It was firm, mobile, and nontender. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) was performed from the cervical lymph node to establish the diagnosis [
Fine-needle aspiration cytology. (a and b) Cellular smears showing loose cohesive clusters of tumor cells with acinar follicular pattern in a background of reactive lymphoid cells (a: MGG, ×100; b: PAP, ×100). (c) High power showing round-to-oval nucleus with moderate anisonucleosis and bizarre cell (MGG, ×400). (d) Tumor cell showing fine nuclear chromatin and moderate-to-abundant fragile cytoplasm and lymphocyte sprinkling (PAP, ×400)
What is your Interpretation?
Reactive lymphoid proliferation Non-caseating granuloma Metastatic paraganglioma Metastatic follicular carcinoma.
The correct cytopathology interpretation is: C. Metastatic paraganglioma
On microscopic examination, the smears were cellular and showed many loose cohesive clusters and dispersed tumor cells in a background of abundant reactive lymphoid cells and hemorrhage [Figure
In view of the cytological diagnosis, the patient was further evaluated by ultrasonography and contrast-enhanced computerized tomography (CECT) of the neck. CECT revealed, in addition, a lobulated, ill-marginated enhancing space-occupying mass in the right carotid bifurcation. It was in close proximity to right common carotid artery beginning at the level of carotid bifurcation. It measured approximately 3.4 cm × 3.2 cm × 3.2 cm [
Contrast-enhanced computerized tomography showing a lobulated, ill-marginated enhancing space occupying lesion in the right carotid bifurcation
Q1: Which is the most common site of paraganglioma?
Carotid body Adrenal gland Mediastinum Organ of Zuckerkandl.
Q2: Following immunohistochemistry (IHC), which IHC marker is not expressed in paraganglioma?
S-100 Pan-cytokeratin Synaptophysin Neuron-specific enolase.
Q3: Which of the following is the diagnostic feature of malignant paraganglioma?
Pleomorphism Mitosis Metastases All the above.
Q1: b; Q2: b; and Q3: c
Q1: (b) Adrenal gland accounts for 90% of paraganglioma, which is also known as pheochromocytoma at this site. Extraadrenal paraganglioma accounts for the rest 10%–15% cases. The most common extraadrenal site is the carotid body and the organ of Zuckerkandl[
Q2: (b) The chief cells of paraganglioma show positive immunostaining with chromogranin, synaptophysin, and neuron-specific enolase, whereas S-100 and glial fibrillary acidic proteins are positive in stellate or dendritic sustentacular cells.[
Q3: (c) Malignant paraganglioma is diagnosed only when it metastasizes to the regional lymph node or distant organs such as the liver, bone, or lungs.[
Paraganglia are collections of specialized neural crest cells arising in association with the autonomic ganglia. Tumors arising from these cells are called paragangliomas, and their names depend on their site.[
The incidence of malignant form is 6% to 24% of nonadrenal paraganglia.[
The cytomorphological features are well established,[
In the neck region, carotid body paraganglioma can be difficult to differentiate from thyroid neoplasms, neurogenic tumors, and metastatic carcinoma.[
Ancillary techniques are helpful for the confirmation of carotid body paraganglioma. It shows immunoreactivity for chromogranin, synaptophysin, neuron-specific enolase, and S-100.[
The authors declare that they have no competing interests.
Each author has participated sufficiently in the work and takes public responsibility for the appropriate portions of the content of this article. SK carried out substantial contributions to conception and design, acquisition of data, and drafting the article. AA carried out substantial contributions to conception and design, acquisition of data, drafting the article, and revising it critically for important intellectual content.
As this is case report without identifiers, our institution does not require approval from the Institutional Review Board (or its equivalent).
CECT - Contrast-enhanced computerized tomography
FNA - Fine-needle aspiration
MGG - May–Grunwald–Giemsa
MRA - Magnetic resonance angiography
PAP - Papanicolaou
USG - Ultrasonography.
To ensure the integrity and highest quality of CytoJournal publications, the review process of this manuscript was conducted under a